An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patients wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens. Tumor-specific antigens are unique to cancer cells and are not found in normal cells. This characteristic distinguishes cancer cells from normal cells and is important in cancer detection and treatment. A: Malignant cells do not necessarily contain more fibronectin than normal body cells. Fibronectin is a glycoprotein found in the extracellular matrix and is not a defining characteristic of cancer cells. C: Chromosomes in cancer cells are actually more prone to instability and mutations compared to normal cells, making them less durable and stable. D: The nuclei of cancer cells can vary in size and shape, with irregularities often seen, rather than being unusually large and regularly shaped.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral valve prolapse. This condition is usually benign during pregnancy because the heart's workload increases, and the mitral valve is a one-way valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium. Mitral valve prolapse typically does not significantly affect the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently during pregnancy. Rationale: 1. Cardiomyopathy (A) can worsen during pregnancy, leading to complications for both the mother and the fetus. 2. Rheumatic heart disease (C) can cause valve damage, increasing the risk of complications during pregnancy. 3. Congenital heart disease (D) varies in severity and can pose risks during pregnancy, depending on the specific condition. Summary: Mitral valve prolapse is the correct answer as it is less likely to cause significant issues during pregnancy compared to the other options provided.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Proper hand hygiene techniques Rationale: 1. Clostridium difficile is mainly spread through contact with contaminated surfaces. 2. Proper hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of bacteria. 3. Hand hygiene removes bacteria from hands, reducing the risk of transmission. 4. Appropriate disposal (A) is important but doesn't directly prevent spread. Monthly in-services (B) and mandatory cultures (C) are not as effective as hand hygiene in preventing transmission.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perianal region and oral mucosa. In patients with AIDS, these areas are more prone to opportunistic infections due to decreased immune function. The perianal region can be affected by conditions like anal warts or herpes, while the oral mucosa can develop oral thrush or other oral infections. By prioritizing assessment of these areas, the nurse can promptly identify any potential issues and initiate appropriate interventions. Choice B: Sacral region and lower abdomen are not typically high-risk areas for skin integrity issues in AIDS patients. Choice C: Scalp and skin over the scapulae are not commonly affected by opportunistic infections related to AIDS. Choice D: Axillae and upper thorax are not as commonly affected as the perianal region and oral mucosa in AIDS patients.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Those who develop critical thinking skills. Critical thinking skills enable nurses to assess situations, analyze information, and communicate effectively with patients. By using critical thinking, nurses can tailor their communication style to each patient's needs, leading to better understanding and rapport. A: Learning effective psychomotor skills is important but does not directly correlate with being a good communicator. C: Liking different kinds of people is beneficial for interpersonal relationships, but it does not necessarily make one a better communicator. D: Maintaining perceptual biases hinders effective communication as it can lead to misunderstandings and barriers in the communication process.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Care of the cervical collar Rationale: 1. Care of the cervical collar is essential post-cervical diskectomy to ensure proper immobilization and support. 2. Proper care prevents complications and promotes healing. 3. It is a crucial aspect of discharge education to prevent injury and promote recovery. Summary of other choices: B: Technique for performing neck ROM exercises - Important for rehabilitation but not directly related to discharge education post-cervical diskectomy. C: Home assessment of ABGs - Irrelevant to post-cervical diskectomy discharge education. D: Techniques for restoring nerve function - Important for recovery but not a primary focus of discharge education.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cognitive effects of aging can mimic symptoms of brain tumors in older adults, leading to misdiagnosis or delayed diagnosis. Aging can also affect the presentation, progression, and treatment outcomes of brain tumors. Option B is incorrect as brain tumors in older adults can indeed produce focal effects. Option C is incorrect as not all older adults have numerous benign brain tumors, and this is not a factor affecting the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in this case. Option D is incorrect as age alone does not preclude treatment for brain tumors.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). In this scenario, the oncology patient has completed treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. TLS is a potential complication post-treatment due to the rapid breakdown of cancer cells, leading to release of intracellular contents like potassium, phosphorus, and uric acid into the bloodstream. This can result in electrolyte imbalances, renal failure, and cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should assess for signs such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and elevated uric acid levels. Monitoring renal function and fluid status is crucial. Summary of other choices: B: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Not typically associated with post-treatment complications in oncology patients. C: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)