ATI RN
Genitourinary Review of Systems Questions
Question 1 of 5
An older man is concerned about his sexual performance. The nurse knows that in the absence of disease, a withdrawal from sexual activity later in life may be attributable to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Side effects of medications. As people age, they are more likely to be on multiple medications, some of which can have side effects like erectile dysfunction or decreased libido, leading to a withdrawal from sexual activity. This is a common issue for older adults. Choice B (Decreased libido with aging) is incorrect because while libido may decrease with age, it is not usually the sole reason for a complete withdrawal from sexual activity. Choice C (Decreased sperm production) is incorrect as it is not directly related to a withdrawal from sexual activity in older men. Choice D (Decreased pleasure from sexual intercourse) is incorrect as pleasure can still be experienced regardless of age, and it is unlikely to be the primary reason for withdrawal.
Question 2 of 5
The drug of choice for monilial diarrhea is: *
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nystatin. Nystatin is the drug of choice for monilial diarrhea because it is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida species causing the infection in the gastrointestinal tract. It is not absorbed systemically, making it suitable for gastrointestinal infections. Amphothericin B (A) is used for systemic fungal infections. Ketoconazole (C) and Itraconazole (D) are not typically used for gastrointestinal Candida infections.
Question 3 of 5
The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development * of carrier state?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chloramphenicol. It is effective in curing typhoid fever but does not prevent carrier state due to its inability to eradicate the bacteria from the gallbladder. Ceftriaxone, Ciprofloxacin, and Cotrimoxazole can also cure typhoid fever but have been shown to reduce the carrier state development. Chloramphenicol lacks this preventive property, making it the correct answer.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following drugs for treatment of leprosy can cause hemolysis * especially in patients with G6PD deficiency?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Dapsone is a known cause of hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency due to oxidative stress. 2. Dapsone triggers the release of reactive oxygen species, leading to hemolysis in G6PD-deficient individuals. 3. Rifampicin and clofazimine do not have a direct association with hemolysis in G6PD deficiency. 4. Option D is incorrect as dapsone is a well-established drug associated with hemolysis in G6PD-deficient individuals.
Question 5 of 5
The highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous * enterocolitis has been noted with the use of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is associated with a high incidence of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis due to its strong impact on disrupting the normal gut flora, leading to overgrowth of Clostridium difficile. This bacterium can produce toxins causing inflammation and pseudomembrane formation in the colon. Ampicillin (A) can also cause C. difficile infection, but clindamycin is more strongly associated. Chloramphenicol (B) and vancomycin (C) are less commonly associated with pseudomembranous enterocolitis compared to clindamycin.