An older adult client has been asked to participate in a randomized controlled trial (RCT) related to the development of a new psychotropic medication. The nurse responsibly acts as the client's advocate when:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because assessing the client's understanding is crucial to ensure informed consent and autonomy. By assessing the client's comprehension, the nurse can verify if the client is aware of the potential risks, benefits, and procedures involved in the RCT. This step is essential to uphold the client's rights and ensure they make an informed decision. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the importance of assessing the client's understanding and may provide false reassurance. Choice B is incorrect as it only focuses on explaining risks without assessing the client's comprehension. Choice C is incorrect as educating the family does not ensure the client's understanding and involvement in decision-making.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT). DBT is specifically designed for individuals with borderline personality disorder, focusing on emotion regulation, distress tolerance, interpersonal effectiveness, and mindfulness. It has shown to be effective in reducing self-harm behaviors and improving overall functioning. CBT (B) may be helpful for some symptoms but lacks the comprehensive approach of DBT. MBCT (C) is primarily used for depression and may not address the specific needs of individuals with borderline personality disorder. ERP (D) is used for anxiety disorders, not BPD.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Valium (Diazepam) is commonly used in alcohol withdrawal due to its long-acting properties and effectiveness in managing symptoms. 2. Ativan (Lorazepam) is also used, but Valium is preferred for its longer duration of action. 3. Librium (Chlordiazepoxide) is another option with a long half-life, but Valium is more commonly used. 4. Sedation is not a benzodiazepine and does not directly address alcohol withdrawal symptoms. In summary, Valium is preferred for alcohol withdrawal due to its long-acting properties, followed by Ativan and Librium. Sedation is not a benzodiazepine and does not treat alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-blocker commonly used to manage physical symptoms associated with anxiety, such as tremors and rapid heart rate. It is effective for performance anxiety, social phobia, and panic disorder by reducing physiological symptoms without affecting cognitive functions. Other choices like B, C, and D are not indicated for these conditions and do not target the cardiovascular symptoms associated with anxiety.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Zoloft is known to cause sexual side effects like erectile dysfunction. Step 2: The nurse should recommend discussing switching medications with the physician to address the issue. Step 3: Switching medications may help alleviate the erectile dysfunction without compromising the patient's mental health treatment. Summary: Option A is correct as it directly addresses the patient's concern and offers a potential solution. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they are unrelated to the patient's issue with erectile dysfunction caused by Zoloft.