An obese patient has schizophrenia. Medications that block which receptors would contribute to further weight gain?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) H1 receptors. Antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia often have side effects that can contribute to weight gain. Histamine (H1) receptor blockade is a common side effect of many antipsychotic drugs, leading to increased appetite and weight gain in patients. Therefore, blocking H1 receptors would likely further exacerbate weight gain in an obese patient with schizophrenia. Option B) 5 HT2 receptors are also involved in weight regulation, but blocking these receptors is more commonly associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Option C) GABA and Option D) Acetylcholine are not directly implicated in weight gain associated with antipsychotic medications. Understanding the pharmacological mechanisms of different drug classes is crucial in pharmacology. It is essential for healthcare professionals to be aware of potential side effects of medications to make informed decisions regarding patient care. By knowing the specific receptor interactions and side effect profiles of drugs, healthcare providers can better manage and anticipate adverse effects in their patients.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: This question requires the application of knowledge about selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) to a specific plan for medication education. To reduce nausea, the patient should be advised to take the medicine with meals. When teaching patients who are taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), one must emphasize that patients should dangle their legs over the bed and change positions slowly to prevent postural hypotension. It is also advisable for patients to increase fluids, exercise, and roughage intake to prevent the anticholinergic effects of antidepressants. Foods that contain tyramine (e.g., Chianti, nuts, cheese) are prohibited when patients are taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). The primary synaptic activity for SSRIs is to inhibit the reuptake of 5-HT. The possible clinical effects of 5-HT include the following: gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances and sexual dysfunction. Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac), an SSRI that is usually administered in the morning to reduce the potential of a side-effect profile that is 2+ for insomnia/agitation, also demonstrates a 3+ for GI disturbances.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pharmacology, particularly when discussing psychotropic drugs, understanding their mechanism of action is crucial for safe and effective medication administration. In the context of the client's question on how psychotropic drugs work, the correct answer is C) Neurotransmitters. Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that transmit signals across synapses in the nervous system. Psychotropic drugs, such as antidepressants, antipsychotics, and anxiolytics, exert their therapeutic effects by modulating the levels of neurotransmitters like serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. By altering the balance of these neurotransmitters in the brain, psychotropic drugs can help regulate mood, cognition, and behavior in individuals with mental health disorders. Regarding why the other options are incorrect: A) The cerebellum is primarily involved in coordinating voluntary movements and balance, not the primary target for psychotropic drugs. B) Dendrites are extensions of neurons that receive signals, but they are not the main site of action for psychotropic drugs. D) The peripheral nervous system controls voluntary movements and autonomic functions but is not directly targeted by psychotropic drugs that primarily act within the central nervous system. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the specific targets of pharmacological agents and how they interact with the body to produce therapeutic effects. It reinforces the concept that psychotropic drugs exert their influence at the neurotransmitter level, underscoring the need for nurses to have a solid grasp of pharmacology to provide accurate patient education and safe medication management.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Flumazenil (Romazicon), a benzodiazepine antidote, can be used to acutely reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Hemodialysis is not useful for benzodiazepine overdose, and naloxone is used for opioid overdose, not benzodiazepine overdose. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are not appropriate because the patient is still responsive and breathing on his own.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pharmacology, it is crucial to understand the specific indications for each drug to ensure safe and effective patient care. In the case of transdermal nitroglycerin patches, the correct answer is C) To prevent the occurrence of angina. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by dilating blood vessels, increasing oxygen supply to the heart, and reducing the workload on the heart. Therefore, it is primarily used to prevent and relieve angina, a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Option A) To prevent palpitations is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not indicated for this purpose. Palpitations are irregular heartbeats and are not typically treated with nitroglycerin patches. Option B) To relieve shortness of breath is also incorrect as nitroglycerin is not primarily used to address respiratory issues. Shortness of breath may be a symptom of heart failure or other conditions that nitroglycerin does not directly target. Option D) To keep the heart rate from rising too high during exercise is incorrect as nitroglycerin does not have a direct effect on heart rate regulation. It is essential for healthcare providers to educate patients on the specific indications of medications to promote understanding and compliance with their treatment plans.