ATI RN
Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
An obese 55-year-old woman went through menarche at age 16 and menopause 2 years ago. She is concerned because an aunt had severe osteoporosis. Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Family history of osteoporosis is a significant risk factor, as genetics play a key role in determining a person's risk for developing osteoporosis. Having a close relative, such as an aunt, with severe osteoporosis increases this woman's risk as there is a strong genetic component to the disease. Factors such as obesity (choice A), late menopause (choice B), and delayed menarche (choice D) do not directly increase the risk of osteoporosis, unlike having a familial history of the condition.
Question 2 of 9
Suzanne is a 20-year-old college student who complains of chest pain. This is intermittent and is located to the left of her sternum. There are no associated symptoms. On examination, you hear a short, high-pitched sound in systole, followed by a murmur which increases in intensity until S . This is heard best over the apex. When she squats, this noise moves later in systole along with the murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is consistent with mitral valve prolapse (MVP). MVP is characterized by the improper closure of the mitral valve leaflets during systole, leading to the prolapse of one or both leaflets into the left atrium. The classic auscultatory findings in MVP include a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur. The click is the result of sudden tensing of the chordae tendineae as the mitral valve prolapses, and the murmur occurs as blood leaks backward (mitral regurgitation) due to imperfect valve closure.
Question 3 of 9
What is responsible for the inspiratory splitting of S ?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inspiratory splitting of S occurs due to the normal physiological delay in the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves during inspiration. During inspiration, the negative intrathoracic pressure leads to increased venous return to the right side of the heart, causing a slight delay in the closure of the pulmonic valve. This results in the aortic valve closing first, followed by the closure of the pulmonic valve, leading to the splitting of S during inspiration.
Question 4 of 9
A daycare worker presents to your office with jaundice. She denies IV drug use, blood transfusion, and travel and has not been sexually active for the past 10 months. Which type of hepatitis is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Among the options presented, Hepatitis B (HBV) is most likely in this scenario. HBV can be transmitted through mucous membrane exposure to infectious blood or body fluids, including sexual contact. The daycare worker's history of not being sexually active for the past 10 months would not completely rule out the possibility of acquiring HBV through a past sexual encounter. Also, HBV can persist in the blood for prolonged periods, making it a likely cause of jaundice in this case. The other types of hepatitis (A, C, D) are less likely based on the information provided concerning the daycare worker's history and risk factors.
Question 5 of 9
A 28-year-old musician comes to your clinic, complaining of a "spot" on his penis. He states his partner noticed it 2 days ago and it hasn't gone away. He says it doesn't hurt. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during intercourse. He has had several partners in the last year and uses condoms occasionally. His past medical history consists of nongonococcal urethritis from Chlamydia and prostatitis. He denies any surgeries. He smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, drinks a case of beer a week, and smokes marijuana and occasionally crack. He has injected IV drugs before but not in the last few years. He is single and currently unemployed. His mother has rheumatoid arthritis and he doesn't know anything about his father. On examination you see a young man appearing deconditioned but pleasant. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis there is a 6-mm red, oval ulcer with an indurated base just proximal to the corona. There is no prepuce because of neonatal circumcision. On palpation the ulcer is nontender. In the inguinal region there is nontender lymphadenopathy. What disorder of the penis is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation described in the scenario is consistent with a syphilitic chancre, which is the primary lesion of syphilis. Syphilitic chancres are painless, indurated ulcers that occur at the site of initial infection with Treponema pallidum. These chancres are typically 0.5-2 cm in size, have a clean base, and are often accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy. The red oval ulcer with an indurated base in this patient, along with the absence of pain and presence of lymphadenopathy, is consistent with a syphilitic chancre.
Question 6 of 9
On visual confrontation testing, a stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered. Which of the following terms would describe this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A right homonymous hemianopsia refers to a visual field defect in which the patient is unable to see objects in the right half of the visual field in both eyes. In the case described, the stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered, which is consistent with a right homonymous hemianopsia. This type of visual field defect typically occurs as a result of damage to the optic tract or optic radiation on one side of the brain, which affects the processing of visual information from the opposite visual field. It is important to note that bitemporal hemianopsia, right temporal hemianopsia, and binasal hemianopsia involve different patterns of visual field loss and are not fitting descriptions for the presented scenario.
Question 7 of 9
Mr. Maxwell has noticed that he is gaining weight and has increasing girth. Which of the following would argue for the presence of ascites?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ascites is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. When ascites is present, dullness is typically heard on percussion due to the fluid in the abdomen. This dullness does not shift with changes in the patient's position. Therefore, the finding of dullness which remains despite a change in position would argue for the presence of ascites. The other choices (A, C, D) describe findings that are more consistent with gaseous distention rather than ascites.
Question 8 of 9
Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal lymph nodes is unremarkable. On visualization of the vulva, a thick, white, curdy discharge is seen at the introitus. On speculum examination there is a copious amount of this discharge. The pH of the discharge is 1 and the KOH whiff test is negative, with no unusual smell. Wet prep shows budding hyphae. What vaginitis does this patient most likely have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is consistent with Candida vaginitis, also known as vaginal yeast infection. Candida vaginitis typically presents with a thick, white, curdy discharge that can be visualized on examination. The low pH of 1 is characteristic of Candida infection. The negative KOH whiff test and absence of an unusual smell help differentiate Candida vaginitis from other types of vaginitis.
Question 9 of 9
He is afebrile. His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. Visualization of the anus shows no erythema, masses, or inflammation. Digital rectal examination elicits an irregular, firm mass on the posterior side of the rectum. After you remove your finger you notice frank blood on your glove. What anal or rectal disorder is this patient most likely to have?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient in this scenario presents with symptoms suggestive of an anorectal disorder. The presence of an irregular, firm mass on the posterior side of the rectum, along with frank blood seen on the glove after a digital rectal examination, raises suspicion for an underlying anorectal cancer. Anorectal cancer can present with symptoms such as rectal bleeding, changes in bowel habits, palpable masses, and weight loss. In this case, the findings of an irregular mass and rectal bleeding are concerning for a malignant process such as anorectal cancer. Further evaluation with imaging studies and biopsy would be warranted for confirmation and to guide appropriate management.