An obese 55-year-old woman went through menarche at age 16 and menopause 2 years ago. She is concerned because an aunt had severe osteoporosis. Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Family history of osteoporosis is a significant risk factor, as genetics play a key role in determining a person's risk for developing osteoporosis. Having a close relative, such as an aunt, with severe osteoporosis increases this woman's risk as there is a strong genetic component to the disease. Factors such as obesity (choice A), late menopause (choice B), and delayed menarche (choice D) do not directly increase the risk of osteoporosis, unlike having a familial history of the condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presence of new flat red and purple lesions that are tender on the ulnar aspect of Ms. Whiting's forearms raises concerns and warrants further investigation. Since she did not mention them, it is important to ask how she acquired them to gather more information. This will help determine the cause of the lesions and provide clues to potential underlying conditions or recent activities that could be related to their development. It is important not to dismiss these lesions as old without proper evaluation, as they could indicate a recent injury, infection, or other medical issues that may require attention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The next step would be to discuss the physical therapy plan with Mr. Larson. It is important to communicate openly with him, explain the recommendation for physical therapy, and ensure that he understands and agrees with the plan before proceeding further. This allows for any questions or concerns to be addressed, and ensures that the treatment plan is tailored to his needs and preferences. By discussing the plan with Mr. Larson first, you can also provide him with the opportunity to ask any questions and actively involve him in his own care, which can lead to better compliance and outcomes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Epistaxis, also known as a nosebleed, should be considered in a patient complaining of coughing up blood along with a history of smoking. Epistaxis can sometimes lead to blood trickling down the throat and being coughed up. It is important to consider this differential diagnosis, especially in patients with risk factors such as smoking. Intestinal bleeding (choice A) has a different presentation and cause compared to epistaxis. Hematoma of the nasal septum (choice B) is unlikely to cause coughing up blood. Bruising of the tongue (choice D) is also less likely to be the cause of hemoptysis in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The information provided - "The patient had a stent placed in the left anterior descending artery (LAD)" - is related to a medical procedure, specifically a surgical intervention involving the placement of a stent in a coronary artery. This information falls under the category of surgeries because it describes a surgical treatment to address a cardiovascular issue. It does not pertain to adult illnesses, obstetrics/gynecology, or psychiatric conditions, making option B the most appropriate category for this information.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: All of the mentioned techniques are important in performing a rectal examination.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient in this scenario presents with symptoms suggestive of an anorectal disorder. The presence of an irregular, firm mass on the posterior side of the rectum, along with frank blood seen on the glove after a digital rectal examination, raises suspicion for an underlying anorectal cancer. Anorectal cancer can present with symptoms such as rectal bleeding, changes in bowel habits, palpable masses, and weight loss. In this case, the findings of an irregular mass and rectal bleeding are concerning for a malignant process such as anorectal cancer. Further evaluation with imaging studies and biopsy would be warranted for confirmation and to guide appropriate management.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and multiple tender points on palpation, especially in the neck, shoulders, back, and hips. The patient's symptoms of widespread pain and tenderness at specific points on the muscles without arthritis, joint swelling, or limitation in range of motion are consistent with fibromyalgia. Fibromyalgia is often associated with poor sleep quality, morning stiffness, and fatigue, which the patient in the case provided experiences. Other conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, or polymyalgia rheumatica would typically present differently with specific joint involvement, swelling, and additional systemic symptoms, which are not seen in this patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Based on the description provided, the skin lesions are most consistent with seborrheic keratosis. Seborrheic keratoses are common non-cancerous (benign) growths of the skin that often appear as brown, black, or light tan growths with a waxy, stuck-on appearance. They can vary in color and may be round or oval, with a well-defined border. Seborrheic keratoses are typically asymptomatic and can be found on various parts of the body including the face, arms, and legs. The dry, hard scale covering the lesion is typical for seborrheic keratoses.