An intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) is being used for a patient who is in cardiogenic shock. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse that the goals of treatment with the IABP are being met?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min. In cardiogenic shock, the primary goal of using an IABP is to improve cardiac output to ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs. A cardiac output of 5 L/min indicates adequate blood flow and perfusion. Choice A is incorrect as urine output is not a direct indicator of cardiac function. Choice B is incorrect as a heart rate of 110 beats/minute alone does not provide information on the effectiveness of the IABP in improving cardiac output. Choice D is incorrect as stroke volume alone does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall cardiac function.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because maintaining eye contact with the patient during explanations is a non-verbal way to show attentiveness and empathy, which can help reduce the patient's anxiety. This behavior demonstrates active listening and engagement, making the patient feel heard and understood. A: Staying in the patient's room to complete documentation is not an effective use of presence as it does not involve direct interaction with the patient. B: Having a conversation in the patient's room that excludes the patient is also not an effective use of presence as it does not involve engaging with the patient. D: Focusing on specific nursing care tasks while in the patient's room, although important, may not necessarily demonstrate presence in reducing the patient's anxiety.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). This is crucial in monitoring a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction as it provides information on left ventricular function and fluid status. A high PAWP may indicate left ventricular failure or fluid overload, requiring immediate intervention. A: Central venous pressure (CVP) is not as specific for assessing left ventricular function and may not provide accurate information in this scenario. B: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is important in assessing systemic blood flow, but it may not directly indicate left ventricular function in this case. C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is more relevant in conditions affecting the pulmonary circulation and may not be as immediately informative in assessing left ventricular function in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response causing renal hypoperfusion. Sepsis leads to a decrease in renal blood flow, resulting in acute kidney injury. Fluid overload (B) can contribute to renal dysfunction but is not the primary cause in critically ill patients. Medications (C) can cause kidney injury, but sepsis is more prevalent. Hemodynamic instability (D) is a consequence of sepsis and can lead to acute kidney injury, making it an indirect cause.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine indicates possible kidney damage from the blunt trauma. This is concerning as it may suggest renal injury or dysfunction. A: Creatinine levels in the urine being similar to blood levels is normal as creatinine is filtered by the kidneys. B: Sodium and chloride being present in the urine is expected as they are components of urine. C: Urine uric acid levels matching serum levels is common as uric acid is excreted by the kidneys. In summary, the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine is abnormal and indicates potential kidney damage, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg per nasogastric tube. Rationale: LPNs/LVNs are trained to administer medications, including oral and nasogastric routes. Giving acetaminophen via nasogastric tube is within their scope of practice. LPNs/LVNs should have the knowledge and skills to safely administer this medication as part of the hypothermia protocol. Summary of other choices: A: Continuously monitor heart rhythm - This requires specialized training and skills typically within the scope of registered nurses or cardiac monitoring technicians. B: Check neurologic status every 2 hours - Assessing neurologic status requires critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are typically responsibilities of registered nurses. C: Place cooling blankets above and below the patient - Positioning and managing cooling devices may require specific training and should be done under the supervision of a registered nurse.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a patient with a history of fluid overload due to heart failure is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury. Heart failure can lead to decreased kidney perfusion causing acute kidney injury. In this scenario, the patient's fluid overload exacerbates the situation, further compromising kidney function. Choice A is incorrect as aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury but the duration of 6 days is less concerning compared to chronic fluid overload from heart failure in choice D. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension does not directly increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as the patient being discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy does not necessarily indicate a higher risk compared to chronic fluid overload.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because informed consent requires the patient to have knowledge and competence to make a decision. This involves understanding the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the proposed treatment. Choice A is incorrect as it pertains to a physical ability unrelated to decision-making. Choice C is incorrect as consent must be verbal or written, not just nodding. Choice D is incorrect as consent can be obtained in various ways, not specifically through reading and writing in English.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because palliative care indeed focuses on providing relief from pain and other symptoms, enhancing quality of life for patients with serious illnesses. This aligns with the essence of palliative care, which is to provide holistic support to improve comfort and well-being. The other choices are incorrect: B is wrong because palliative care does not aim to cure the underlying disease but rather to alleviate suffering; C is incorrect as palliative care can be initiated earlier in the disease trajectory, not just during the final days; and D is inaccurate because patients can continue receiving treatments alongside palliative care to manage symptoms and improve their quality of life.