An infant with a ventricular septal defect is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate before digoxin administration?

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ANCC Cardiovascular Certification Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

An infant with a ventricular septal defect is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate before digoxin administration?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Check the infant's apical pulse for 1 minute. Before administering digoxin, it is crucial to assess the infant's apical pulse because digoxin is a medication that affects the heart rate. By checking the apical pulse, the nurse can determine the baseline heart rate and assess for any irregularities or changes that may indicate digoxin toxicity. This step is essential to ensure the medication is safe for the infant. Incorrect choices: A: Taking the infant's blood pressure is not necessary before administering digoxin, as the focus should be on assessing the heart rate specifically. B: Checking the respiratory rate is not directly related to digoxin administration and does not provide crucial information about the medication's effects. C: Checking the radial pulse is not as accurate as checking the apical pulse when assessing the heart rate, which is critical before giving digoxin.

Question 2 of 5

When teaching a client with an aneurysm what signs and symptoms may indicate impending rupture, the nurse considers which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Size and location of the aneurysm. This is crucial because an aneurysm's risk of rupture is directly related to its size and location. Larger aneurysms and those located in critical areas are more likely to rupture. Explanation: 1. Size: Larger aneurysms have a higher risk of rupture due to increased pressure on the arterial wall. 2. Location: Aneurysms in certain areas, such as the brain or aorta, are more prone to rupture. 3. Medication therapy (choice A) is important but does not directly indicate impending rupture. 4. The client's usual blood pressure (choice B) is relevant but not a definitive sign of impending rupture. 5. Age and gender (choice C) are important factors but do not directly indicate impending rupture. In summary, monitoring the size and location of the aneurysm is crucial for identifying signs of impending rupture in a client with an aneur

Question 3 of 5

The nurse would assess for which of the following manifestations in a client with suspected arterial embolism to the left hand? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain. Arterial embolism to the left hand can lead to ischemia, causing severe pain due to inadequate blood flow. This pain is typically described as sudden and severe. Pale skin (B) is a sign of inadequate blood supply but may not be specific to arterial embolism. Bounding radial pulse (C) is unlikely in arterial embolism as it obstructs blood flow. Parasthesias (D) may occur due to nerve compression, but pain is a more prominent symptom in arterial embolism.

Question 4 of 5

A patient is suspected of having a decreased cardiac output due to dysrhythmias. Which of the following assessments would be included in a decreased cardiac output? Select all that apply

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated jugular venous distention. This is a common sign of decreased cardiac output as it indicates increased central venous pressure due to impaired cardiac function. Elevated JVD reflects inadequate cardiac output, leading to blood backing up into the jugular veins. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output. Full and bounding pulses are usually seen in conditions of increased cardiac output, not decreased. Diaphoresis is a non-specific symptom and can be present in various conditions, not specifically indicative of decreased cardiac output.

Question 5 of 5

If a hypertensive client with asthma takes the maximal dose of his diuretic and his blood pressure still isn't controlled, the nurse understands the next step in controlling his hypertension would be to:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that helps lower blood pressure by blocking the production of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Step 2: Adding enalapril would be the appropriate next step as it provides an additional mechanism of action to control hypertension. Step 3: Changing to a beta blocker (B) or adding another diuretic (C) may not address the underlying cause of the uncontrolled hypertension. Step 4: Increasing the drug dosage above recommended levels (D) can lead to adverse effects without necessarily improving blood pressure control.

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