An infant is diagnosed with patent ductus arteriosus. Which drug should the nurse anticipate administering to attempt to close the defect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choosing D (Indomethacin): 1. Indomethacin is a prostaglandin inhibitor that helps close the patent ductus arteriosus by constricting the blood vessel. 2. The ductus arteriosus is a connection between the aorta and pulmonary artery in fetuses that should close after birth. 3. By inhibiting prostaglandin production, Indomethacin promotes closure of the ductus arteriosus in infants with patent ductus arteriosus. 4. Digoxin (Choice A) is a cardiac glycoside used for heart failure; Prednisone (Choice B) is a corticosteroid; Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic - none of these medications close the ductus arteriosus like Indomethacin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because smoking and oral contraceptive use are both risk factors for developing deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). Smoking increases the risk of blood clot formation, while oral contraceptives can also contribute to blood clot formation. The combination of these two factors significantly increases the likelihood of developing DVT. Choice A is less likely to develop DVT as being young and postpartum does not carry as high a risk compared to the other options. Choice B, although on anticoagulant therapy, is at a lower risk compared to Choice C due to the specific risk factors mentioned. Choice D, having undergone laparoscopic cholecystectomy, has a lower risk compared to Choice C as surgery alone is not as significant a risk factor for DVT as smoking and oral contraceptive use.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bruit to left of the midline in the abdominal area. This is indicative of a possible AAA complication, such as a rupture or impending rupture. A bruit in the abdominal area can signify turbulent blood flow due to the AAA. The other choices are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the symptoms of AAA. Choice A is more indicative of cardiac issues, choice C suggests a possible neurological problem, and choice D is more related to cervical spine issues. Hence, choice B is the most relevant additional sign and symptom in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atrial flutter. Atrial flutter typically presents with a saw-tooth appearance of P waves at a rate of around 250-350 beats per minute. This rhythm is characterized by regular, rapid atrial depolarizations originating from a single ectopic focus in the atria. In contrast, Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT) is usually faster with rates above 150 bpm, Premature atrial contractions (PACs) are isolated premature beats, and Atrial fibrillation is irregularly irregular with no defined P waves. Therefore, the saw-toothed P waves at a rate of 300 bpm align with the characteristics of atrial flutter.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because calcium channel blockers decrease the velocity of electrical activity on the AV node, leading to a decreased heart rate and reduced conduction through the AV node. This results in a negative chronotropic effect, slowing down the heart rate. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Calcium channel blockers do not increase preload on the heart. They may actually reduce preload by dilating blood vessels. C: Calcium channel blockers do not block sodium channels in the heart muscle; they specifically target calcium channels. D: Calcium channel blockers do not cause vasoconstriction of coronary arteries; they often have vasodilatory effects on coronary arteries.