ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 12th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
An etiological cause of hospital-acquired infections could be
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because hospital-acquired infections can be caused by a variety of microorganisms, including opportunistic pathogens and obligate pathogens such as bacteria or viruses. Opportunistic microorganisms take advantage of weakened immune systems in hospital patients, while obligate pathogens are capable of causing infections in healthy individuals. Therefore, all the choices are correct in this context as they represent potential etiological causes of hospital-acquired infections.
Question 2 of 9
The process in which bacteria take up foreign DNA from the environment is called:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transformation. During transformation, bacteria take up foreign DNA from the environment and incorporate it into their own genetic material. This process allows for genetic diversity and adaptation. Transduction (B) involves transfer of DNA via a virus, conjugation (C) involves direct transfer of DNA between bacterial cells, and binary fission (D) is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria. Transformation is the only process specifically related to bacteria taking up foreign DNA.
Question 3 of 9
Which statements is NOT CORRECT: Treponema pallidum can be cultivated on:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Artificial food media. Treponema pallidum is a fastidious bacterium that cannot be cultivated on artificial food media due to its complex nutritional requirements. It can be cultivated on cell lines and intratesticular in rabbits. Therefore, option A is incorrect. Option B and C are correct.
Question 4 of 9
During the examination of a patient, who had been to the mountain pasture and had been hospitalized in a bad condition with fever, the doctor found out the enlargement of inguinal lymph nodes to 8 cm, which were attached to the surrounding tissues, immovable, the skin above them was red and tender. The microscopic examination of the node revealed acute serohemorrhagic inflammation. What disease is it typical for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. The patient has symptoms of fever, enlarged lymph nodes, red and tender skin, which are indicative of systemic infection. 2. The inguinal lymph nodes in plague become enlarged, tender, and painful, forming buboes. 3. The presence of acute serohemorrhagic inflammation in the lymph node is characteristic of plague. 4. Plague is a zoonotic bacterial infection caused by Yersinia pestis, commonly transmitted through fleas from rodents. 5. Brucellosis, anthrax, and tularemia do not typically present with inguinal lymph node involvement and acute serohemorrhagic inflammation. Summary: - Brucellosis: Usually presents with flu-like symptoms, joint pain, and fever, not inguinal lymph node enlargement. - Anthrax: Presents with skin lesions, respiratory symptoms, or gastrointestinal symptoms, not inguinal lymph node involvement. - Tularemia: Presents with fever, skin ulcers,
Question 5 of 9
What structure allows bacteria to exchange genetic material?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pili. Pili are hair-like appendages on the surface of bacteria that facilitate the exchange of genetic material through a process called conjugation. During conjugation, bacteria can transfer plasmids and other genetic material to neighboring bacteria through pili. This allows for the exchange of beneficial traits like antibiotic resistance. Choice B, Flagella, are involved in bacterial movement and not in genetic material exchange. Choice C, Endospores, are protective structures formed by bacteria in response to harsh conditions, but they are not involved in genetic material exchange. Choice D, Capsules, are protective layers around bacteria that help in adherence to surfaces and evasion of the immune system, but they do not play a role in genetic material exchange.
Question 6 of 9
The specific binding of HIV to the CD4 surface molecules of the target cells is brought about by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gp120. Gp120 is a glycoprotein on the surface of the HIV virus that specifically binds to the CD4 receptor on target cells. This binding is essential for the virus to enter the host cell and initiate the infection process. Gp41 is another glycoprotein on the virus that helps with membrane fusion, not binding to CD4. Gp32 and Gp55 are not involved in the specific binding of HIV to CD4 molecules. So, A is correct as it directly plays a key role in the initial attachment of HIV to target cells.
Question 7 of 9
Specify the FALSE statement. Bacteriocins:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because bacteriocins are substances with protein nature, not polysaccharides. Bacteriocins are antimicrobial peptides that kill bacterial cells, mainly those of closely related species or other strains of the same species. Polysaccharides are not typically involved in bacteriocin activity. Therefore, option C is false. Options A, B, and D are true statements supported by the nature and function of bacteriocins.
Question 8 of 9
Gram-negative, capsulated bacteria with capsule, lactose-positive colonies. Isolated for the first time in pneumonia, but have more important role in urinary infections, otitis, meningitides, sepsis, nosocomial infections:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Klebsiella pneumoniae. This bacterium is gram-negative, capsulated, and forms lactose-positive colonies. It was first isolated in pneumonia but is more commonly associated with urinary infections, otitis, meningitides, sepsis, and nosocomial infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae fits all the characteristics mentioned in the question, making it the correct choice. Incorrect choices: A: Staphylococcus aureus is gram-positive and does not have a capsule. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae is also gram-positive and does not fit the description given. D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an acid-fast bacterium associated with tuberculosis, but it is neither gram-negative nor lactose-positive.
Question 9 of 9
The generation time of Escherichia Coli is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 20 minutes. Escherichia coli has a short generation time, typically around 20 minutes. This means that under ideal conditions, one bacterium can divide and produce two daughter cells every 20 minutes. This rapid growth rate is a characteristic of E. coli and is important in various fields such as microbiology and biotechnology. Choice B (60 minutes) and Choice C (20 hours) are incorrect as they do not align with the typical generation time of E. coli. Choice D (24 hours) is also incorrect as it is too long for the generation time of E. coli.