ATI RN
Pediatric Neurology Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
An elevated polymorphonuclear (PMN) cells count in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) suggests
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated polymorphonuclear (PMN) cells in CSF indicate an acute inflammatory response, typically seen in bacterial infections or early viral processes. The early phase of aseptic (viral) meningitis often shows a PMN predominance before shifting to lymphocytes, making it the correct answer. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents with lymphocytic predominance, not PMNs, as it is a chronic infection. Fungal meningitis also shows lymphocytrather than PMNs due to its slower progression. Demyelinating diseasand brain or spinal cord tumors may cause mild CSF changes, but not a significant PMN increase, as they are not primarily infectious. The acute nature of PMN elevation aligns with the early viral meningitis phase, distinguishing B as the most fitting choice.
Question 2 of 5
Trigoncephaly is a skull deformity that is a direct result of premature fusion of the following
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Trigonocephaly results from premature fusion of the metopic suture , which runs midline on the forehead, causing a triangular skull shape with a pointed forehead. Sagittal suture fusion leads to scaphocephaly (long, narrow skull), coronal suture fusion to brachycephaly or plagiocephaly, and lambdoid suture fusion to posterior plagiocephaly. Multiple suture fusion causcomplex craniosynostosis, not specifically trigonocephaly. The metopic suturunique frontal location directly correlatwith trigonocephalys characteristic ridge and shape, making D the correct answer.
Question 3 of 5
Absence seizurare MOST often initially treated with
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Absence seizures, brief lapsin awareness, are best treated initially with ethosuximide , which targets T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons, reducing absence seizure frequency with fewer side effects. Valproate is effective but broader-spectrum, used if absence coexists with other seizures, and has more side effects (e.g., weight gain). Lamotrigine is less effective for absence alone, while acetazolamide and clonazepam are secondary options. Guidelin(e.g., NICE) favor ethosuximide for its efficacy and tolerability in typical absence, making A the correct answer over broader or less specific alternatives.
Question 4 of 5
The MOST common cause of neonatal seizuris
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (HIE) is the leading cause of neonatal seizures, occurring in 1-2 per 1,000 live births, due to perinatal asphyxia impairing cerebral oxygenation and triggering seizures. Vascular events like stroke, infections like meningitis, brain malformations , and metabolic disturbanc(e.g., hypoglycemia) are less common, with HIE dominating due to its prevalence in term infants and direct neuronal injury. Studi(e.g., VolpNeurology of the Newborn) confirm HIprominence, making D the correct answer over other etiologies.
Question 5 of 5
Definite tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC) is diagnosed when at least 2 major or 1 major plus 2 minor featurare present, all the following are minor featurEXCEPT
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: TSC diagnosis usmajor (e.g., shagreen patch) and minor featur(e.g., dental pits, gingival fibromas). Shagreen patch is a major feature connective tissue nevus not minor, unlike cerebral migration lin, dental pits , gingival fibromas , and bone cysts . This classification (TSC Consensus) distinguishA as the exception and correct answer, as it elevatdiagnostic weight beyond minor status.