ATI RN
Cardiovascular Inflammation Drug Questions
Question 1 of 5
An elderly client diagnosed with schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic and a beta-adrenergic blocking agent (propranolol) for hypertension. Understanding the combined side effects of these drugs, the nurse would most appropriately make which statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer: Choice C is correct because both antipsychotics and beta-blockers can cause orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to dizziness or fainting when changing positions. Instructing the client to rise slowly can help prevent falls and injuries. Explanation of Incorrect Choices: A: Deep breathing is not directly related to the side effects of these medications. B: Diet and physical activity are important for overall health but not specifically related to the side effects of these medications. D: Sunscreen and sun exposure are not relevant to the side effects of antipsychotics and beta-blockers.
Question 2 of 5
The spouse of a man being treated with sertraline (Zoloft) calls to report that he had a grand mal seizure. Prior to the seizure, he had seemed confused and his forehead felt hot. The man does not have a seizure-disorder history. Which action should the nurse direct the spouse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the man experienced a grand mal seizure, confusion, and a hot forehead, which are signs of a potential medical emergency. Calling 911 for immediate transportation to the hospital is crucial to ensure prompt medical evaluation and treatment. Seizures can be life-threatening, and it is essential to have medical professionals assess the situation. Choice A is incorrect because waiting to see if there are more seizures can delay necessary medical intervention. Choice C is incorrect as holding the medication and encouraging fluids does not address the immediate medical emergency of a seizure. Choice D is incorrect because administering an antipyretic drug for fever does not address the seizure itself or the underlying cause.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is taking warfarin 5 mg/day for atrial fibrillation. The patient’s international normalized ratio is 3.8. The nurse would consider the international normalized ratio to be what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated range. An international normalized ratio (INR) of 3.8 is above the target range for patients on warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation, which is usually between 2.0 to 3.0. This elevated INR indicates that the patient is at an increased risk of bleeding due to the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Monitoring and potentially adjusting the dosage of warfarin would be necessary to bring the INR back into the therapeutic range and reduce the risk of adverse events. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the significance of an INR of 3.8 in a patient on warfarin therapy.
Question 4 of 5
A drug blocks the attachment of norepinephrine to 1 receptors. The patient may experience:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: orthostatic hypotension. Blocking norepinephrine from binding to alpha-1 receptors would result in decreased vasoconstriction, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing (orthostatic hypotension). A is incorrect as hypertensive crisis would not occur due to reduced norepinephrine action. C is incorrect as appetite disturbance is not a typical effect of alpha-1 receptor blockage. D is incorrect as an increase in psychotic symptoms is not directly related to norepinephrine-α1 receptor interaction.
Question 5 of 5
The physician reviewing a patient’s medical record states, “This patient’s behavior leads me to wonder if a limbic system problem might be involved.” If this is true, the nurse would be most likely to observe the patient having difficulty:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The limbic system is responsible for regulating emotions, memory, and arousal. Dysfunction in the limbic system can impact coordination of stress-related responses and complex movements. This can manifest as difficulty in responding effectively to stressors or in performing coordinated movements. Therefore, the correct answer is D. A: Regulating emotional behavior is more associated with the amygdala and prefrontal cortex. B: Abstract reasoning and higher-order thinking are primarily controlled by the prefrontal cortex. C: Critical decision making, weighing alternatives, and planning involve the prefrontal cortex and other areas of the brain, not specifically the limbic system.