ATI RN
Midwifery Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An early sign of a ruptured uterus includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A ruptured uterus can lead to fetal distress and necessitate a cesarean section. Failure of the cervix to dilate is indicative of a potential uterine rupture, as the uterus may not be able to contract effectively due to the rupture. Maternal dehydration (A), pyrexia (B), and oliguria (C) are not specific signs of a ruptured uterus and may be present in various other conditions. Therefore, failure of the cervix to dilate is the most relevant early sign in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with suspected Cushings syndrome is being evaluated to establish the diagnosis and cause. Patients with an adrenal tumor typically will demonstrate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Low ACTH and low cortisol) because in patients with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome, the tumor autonomously produces cortisol, leading to suppression of ACTH secretion from the pituitary. This results in low ACTH levels and high cortisol levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the characteristic hormone levels seen in patients with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome.
Question 3 of 9
Which one of the following drugs when used by a pregnant woman is likely to lead to oligohydramnios?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Captopril. Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to oligohydramnios in pregnant women due to its effect on reducing fetal renal function. This can result in decreased amniotic fluid levels. Diazepam (A) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and is not associated with oligohydramnios. Ampicillin (C) is an antibiotic commonly used during pregnancy and does not cause oligohydramnios. Pethidine (D) is an opioid analgesic with no known association with oligohydramnios in pregnancy.
Question 4 of 9
While reviewing the head CT scan of a patient following a motor vehicle accident, the AGACNP appreciates a crescent-shaped fluid collection. This most likely represents
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute epidural hematoma. A crescent-shaped fluid collection seen on a head CT scan following trauma is indicative of an epidural hematoma, which typically occurs due to an arterial bleed between the dura mater and the skull. This collection appears biconvex due to the restriction of the hematoma by the dura mater and is often associated with a lucid interval followed by rapid deterioration. Explanation for Incorrect Choices: A: Acute subdural hematoma typically presents as a crescent-shaped collection but is located between the dura mater and arachnoid mater, not between the dura mater and skull as seen in epidural hematomas. C: Acute uncal herniation involves displacement of the uncus of the temporal lobe, leading to compression of the brainstem, but it does not manifest as a crescent-shaped fluid collection. D: Acute brainstem compression does not typically present as a distinct crescent-shaped
Question 5 of 9
Jake is a 32-year-old patient who is recovering from major abdominal surgery and organ resection following a catastrophic motor vehicle accident. Due to the nature of his injuries, a large portion of his jejunum had to be resected. In planning for his recovery and nutritional needs, the AGACNP considers that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: His procedure has put him at significant risk for B12 absorption problems. Rationale: 1. Jejunum is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption, including B12. 2. Resection of a large portion of the jejunum can lead to malabsorption of B12. 3. B12 is essential for neurological function and red blood cell production. 4. Patients with significant jejunum resection are at high risk for B12 deficiency. 5. Monitoring B12 levels and potentially requiring supplementation is crucial for patients like Jake. Summary of other choices: A: Incorrect. Lifetime issues with diarrhea are not necessarily expected following jejunum resection. C: Incorrect. The ileum may assume some functions of the jejunum but cannot fully compensate. D: Incorrect. Enteral nutrition should not be delayed for months as it is essential for Jake's recovery and nutritional needs.
Question 6 of 9
Delivery of the head in a breech presentation is usually accomplished through
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver is the correct answer for delivering the head in a breech presentation. This maneuver involves applying pressure to the fetal head with the fingers in the mouth to flex the head, guiding it through the pelvis. This technique helps prevent hyperextension of the head and facilitates a safe delivery. The Lovset maneuver involves rotating the fetus to disengage the impacted shoulder, not for delivering the head. The Burns Marshall Method is used for delivering the aftercoming head in a breech presentation. The Reverse woodscrew maneuver is a technique to disimpact a shoulder dystocia, not for delivering the head in a breech presentation.
Question 7 of 9
Which one of the following is involved in the management of cord prolapse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Placing client on Trendelenburg position. This helps prevent compression of the cord by moving the presenting part off the cord. Placing the client on all fours (choice A) may worsen cord compression. Application of fundal pressure (choice B) is contraindicated as it can further compress the cord. Labor augmentation with oxytocin (choice D) is not indicated in cord prolapse management as it does not address the immediate risk to the fetus. Trendelenburg position is the recommended intervention to alleviate cord compression and improve fetal oxygenation.
Question 8 of 9
Which one of the following is an obstetric emergency?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, complete rupture of the uterus. This is an obstetric emergency due to the risk of severe bleeding and potential harm to both the mother and the fetus. A ruptured uterus can lead to life-threatening complications such as hemorrhage and shock. In contrast, options A, B, and C are not considered obstetric emergencies. Aftercoming head in breech, complete cephalic presentation, and complete breech presentation are normal variations in labor that do not typically require immediate intervention like a ruptured uterus does.
Question 9 of 9
The MOST common type of breech presentation is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech presentation. This is because the frank breech presentation is the most common type of breech presentation, accounting for about 50-70% of all breech births. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the legs extended up towards the head. This position is considered the most favorable for a vaginal delivery compared to the other types of breech presentations. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Complete breech presentation - This type of breech presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the knees bent and the feet near the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. C: Incomplete breech presentation - In this type, one or both of the baby's legs are presenting first instead of the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. D: Footling breech presentation - This type occurs when one or both of the baby's feet