ATI RN
Midwifery Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An early sign of a ruptured uterus includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A ruptured uterus can lead to fetal distress and necessitate a cesarean section. Failure of the cervix to dilate is indicative of a potential uterine rupture, as the uterus may not be able to contract effectively due to the rupture. Maternal dehydration (A), pyrexia (B), and oliguria (C) are not specific signs of a ruptured uterus and may be present in various other conditions. Therefore, failure of the cervix to dilate is the most relevant early sign in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following can lead to placenta praevia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta praevia is more common in women with a history of multiple pregnancies (Grandmultiparity), as repeated stretching of the uterine wall can lead to abnormal placental implantation. Preeclampsia is a separate condition associated with hypertension in pregnancy. Placenta fenestrate and placenta increta are specific placental abnormalities but do not directly cause placenta praevia.
Question 3 of 9
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspiration and culture of fluid. Given Jasmine's history of injection drug use, neck pain, inability to turn her neck, elevated temperature, and foul breath, there is a high suspicion of a deep neck space infection. Aspiration and culture of fluid from the affected area will help identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. This procedure is essential for definitive diagnosis and management of deep neck infections. A: Anteroposterior neck radiography is not the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for evaluating deep neck space infections as it may not provide detailed information on the extent or nature of the infection. B: CT scan of the neck may provide valuable information regarding the extent of the infection, but aspiration and culture of fluid are crucial for identifying the causative organism. C: White blood cell (WBC) differential may show signs of inflammation, but it does not provide specific information on the causative organism of the infection.
Question 4 of 9
Classical caesarean section is indicated for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in cases of anteriorly situated placenta praevia, where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, a classical caesarean section is indicated to prevent severe bleeding during delivery. For choice B, a posteriorly situated placenta praevia does not necessitate a classical caesarean section. Choice C, gestation of more than 32 weeks, does not specifically indicate the need for a classical caesarean section. Choice D, aesthetic purpose on maternal request, is not a valid medical indication for a classical caesarean section.
Question 5 of 9
In the management of a low birth weight baby, a thermal controlled environment is aimed at
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facilitation of weight gain. A thermal controlled environment for a low birth weight baby helps in maintaining the baby's body temperature, reducing energy expenditure, and promoting weight gain. This is crucial for the baby's growth and development. Incorrect choices: A: Prevention of infection - While a thermal controlled environment can indirectly help prevent infections by maintaining the baby's health, it is not the primary aim. C: Provision of quality care - Quality care involves multiple aspects beyond just thermal control, so this is not the primary aim. D: Provision of nutrition - Nutrition is important for weight gain, but the thermal controlled environment specifically focuses on regulating the baby's body temperature to support weight gain.
Question 6 of 9
A correct statement about shoulder dystocia is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Shoulder dystocia is an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head because the anterior shoulder gets stuck behind the pubic symphysis during childbirth. This can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby if not managed promptly. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Impaction of the posterior shoulder is not referred to as shoulder dystocia; it is the impaction of the anterior shoulder that causes the complication. C: Shoulder dystocia is not caused by a compound presentation of the fetus, which refers to a situation where more than one fetal part presents at the maternal pelvis simultaneously. D: Shoulder dystocia is indeed an emergency that requires immediate intervention, as delays can lead to birth injuries and complications. It does not resolve on its own and needs medical assistance.
Question 7 of 9
The term used to describe the situation whereby there is the presence of more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound presentation. This term refers to the situation where there is more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor. This can include a hand or arm alongside the head or another body part. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Unstable lie refers to the fetus being in a transverse position. B: Fetal malpresentation indicates an abnormal presentation of the fetus, such as breech or transverse. C: Fetal malposition refers to the fetus being in a suboptimal position, like occiput posterior. Thus, the best choice is D as it specifically describes the scenario of multiple fetal parts on the pelvic brim.
Question 8 of 9
Which one of the following is involved in the management of cord prolapse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Placing client on Trendelenburg position. This helps prevent compression of the cord by moving the presenting part off the cord. Placing the client on all fours (choice A) may worsen cord compression. Application of fundal pressure (choice B) is contraindicated as it can further compress the cord. Labor augmentation with oxytocin (choice D) is not indicated in cord prolapse management as it does not address the immediate risk to the fetus. Trendelenburg position is the recommended intervention to alleviate cord compression and improve fetal oxygenation.
Question 9 of 9
The lie is defined as unstable when it keeps varying after
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (36 weeks gestation) because at this point in pregnancy, the fetus has reached a stable lie position. Before 36 weeks, fetal lie can vary due to the ample space in the uterus. After 36 weeks, the fetus tends to settle into a consistent head-down or breech position, making the lie stable. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are past the point where the lie typically stabilizes, leading to less variability in fetal positioning.