ATI RN
Psychotherapeutic Drugs Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
An antipsychotic agent, fluphenazine, is ordered for a patient with psychosis. The nurse understands that this agent can lead to symptoms of extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS). What are the symptoms of EPS?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tremors. Fluphenazine can lead to symptoms of extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS), with tremors being a common manifestation. Extrapyramidal symptoms include muscle stiffness, tremors, restlessness, and abnormal body movements. Parkinsonism (choice A) is a specific type of EPS characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are not typical symptoms of EPS. Hyperthermia and dysrhythmias (choice C) are unrelated to EPS. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer as it aligns with the expected symptoms of EPS associated with fluphenazine administration.
Question 2 of 5
A patient is prescribed lorazepam. What does the nurse know to be true regarding lorazepam?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is used to treat anxiety. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that is commonly prescribed for anxiety disorders due to its anxiolytic properties. It acts by enhancing the effects of GABA in the brain, leading to a calming effect. Choice B, status epilepticus, is incorrect as lorazepam is also used for acute management of seizures, but not specifically for status epilepticus. Choice C, insomnia, is incorrect as lorazepam is not typically prescribed for insomnia. Choice D, sedation induction, is incorrect as lorazepam is more commonly used for anxiety and not specifically for sedation induction.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is receiving aripiprazole. Which nursing intervention(s) will the nurse include in the patient’s care plan? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Remain with the patient until medication is swallowed. This intervention is important to ensure medication compliance and prevent cheeking or hoarding of the medication. By staying with the patient until the medication is swallowed, the nurse can confirm that the full dose is taken, reducing the risk of treatment failure. Choice A is incorrect because aripiprazole can be taken with or without food, so administering it before meals on an empty stomach is not necessary for absorption. Choice C is incorrect because while monitoring vital signs is important when administering aripiprazole, it is primarily to detect side effects such as tachycardia rather than orthostatic hypotension specifically. Choice D is incorrect because while assessing for neuroleptic malignant syndrome is important with antipsychotic medications, it is not a specific nursing intervention related to aripiprazole administration.
Question 4 of 5
A patient appears to have had an overdose of phenothiazines. The nurse anticipates that which intervention(s) may be used to treat phenothiazine overdose? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Maintaining an airway Rationale: 1. Priority in phenothiazine overdose is airway management to prevent respiratory distress. 2. Maintaining airway ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation. 3. Gastric lavage is not recommended due to the risk of aspiration. 4. Adequate hydration may be needed, but not a primary intervention. 5. Fluphenazine is a phenothiazine and not a treatment for overdose.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is admitted with bipolar affective disorder. The nurse acknowledges which medication as one used to treat this disorder for some patients in place of lithium?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Divalproex. Divalproex, also known as valproic acid, is commonly used to treat bipolar affective disorder as a mood stabilizer. It helps control manic episodes and prevent future episodes. Thiopental (A) is a short-acting barbiturate used for anesthesia, not bipolar disorder. Ginkgo biloba (B) is an herbal supplement with no proven efficacy in treating bipolar disorder. Fluvoxamine (C) is an antidepressant used for treating depression, not specifically for bipolar disorder. In summary, divalproex is the correct choice due to its established effectiveness in managing bipolar symptoms, while the other options lack evidence or are not indicated for this condition.