An agitated, confused client arrives in the emergency department. The client’s history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. This amount of carbohydrate is recommended for treating hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes to quickly raise blood glucose levels without causing hyperglycemia. Consuming too little carbohydrate may not effectively raise blood glucose levels, while consuming too much may lead to a rapid spike followed by a rebound hypoglycemia. Options A and B provide insufficient amounts of carbohydrate, while option D provides excessive carbohydrate, increasing the risk of hyperglycemia. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for effectively treating hypoglycemia in this client.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because involving the client and family in developing outcomes promotes patient-centered care and increases the likelihood of achieving successful outcomes. This approach fosters collaboration, shared decision-making, and empowers the client and family in their own care. It also helps to ensure that the outcomes align with the client's values, preferences, and goals. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because focusing solely on nursing goals without considering the client's perspective may lead to a lack of engagement and poor outcomes. Discouraging input from other healthcare providers limits the interdisciplinary approach to care, and focusing on why the nurse believes the outcome is important neglects the client's role in the decision-making process.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein produced by the stomach that is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 absorption is impaired, leading to megaloblastic anemia. Histamine and hydrochloric acid are not directly involved in vitamin B12 absorption. Liver enzymes are not implicated in the absorption process. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased serum sodium level. In SIADH, there is an excessive release of ADH, causing water retention and dilution of sodium in the blood. This leads to hyponatremia. B: Increased blood urea nitrogen and C: Decreased serum creatinine level are not typically associated with SIADH. D: Increased hematocrit is not a typical finding in SIADH, as it is more related to dehydration. Therefore, the most anticipated laboratory test result in a client with SIADH is a decreased serum sodium level due to dilutional hyponatremia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH (antidiuretic hormone), leading to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps retain water by reducing urine output. Administering vasopressin helps manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. B: Regular insulin is used to manage diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used to increase urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. D: 10% dextrose is a form of glucose and is not indicated in the treatment of diabetes insipidus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proper positioning. Proper positioning helps maintain joint alignment, prevents pressure ulcers, and reduces the risk of contractures by keeping the muscles in a neutral position. This is crucial in preventing complications associated with spasticity. A: Active exercise may exacerbate spasticity and lead to muscle fatigue, increasing the risk of contractures. B: Use of tilt board may not directly address the need for proper positioning to prevent contractures. C: Deep massage may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of maintaining proper positioning to prevent contractures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs of brain injury, such as altered level of consciousness, unequal pupil size, and clear fluid draining from the nose or ears, indicate a need for urgent medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because hemorrhaging from the oral cavity is not a common sign of a skull fracture. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the foot of the bed is not appropriate for a skull fracture but may be done for shock. Choice D is incorrect because decreased intracranial pressure and temperature are not typical symptoms of a skull fracture.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Lymphangitis is an inflammation of lymphatic vessels. 2. If the affected area appears to enlarge, it indicates possible worsening or spreading of the infection. 3. Nurse should notify the physician for further evaluation and treatment. 4. Red streaks extending up the arm or leg (B) are common signs of lymphangitis, not necessarily requiring immediate physician notification. 5. Additional lymph nodes becoming (C) is a normal response to infection and may not warrant immediate physician notification. 6. Liver and spleen enlargement (D) are not directly related to lymphangitis and do not require immediate notification.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B (High fat diet) Rationale: 1. Ketogenic diet for seizures aims to produce ketones for brain energy, achieved through high fat intake. 2. High fat intake helps induce ketosis, which may help reduce seizures in some children. Incorrect Choices: A: High carbohydrate diet - Contradicts the purpose of a ketogenic diet. C: High protein diet - Excessive protein can hinder ketosis and is not the primary focus of a ketogenic diet. D: Low fat diet - Opposite of the high fat requirement for a ketogenic diet to induce ketosis.