ATI RN
ABVD chemotherapy drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
An agent that is beta-lactamase inhibitor but has no anti-bacterial activity by itself is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sulbactam is a beta-lactamase inhibitor with no intrinsic antibacterial activity.
Question 2 of 5
Ticarcillin is relatively unique among all the penicillins because it poses a greater risk of a relatively unique side effect or adverse response. Which of the following best summarizes what that unique unwanted effect is?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ticarcillin’s high sodium content can cause hypertension, hypervolemia, and bleeding tendencies.
Question 3 of 5
A patient develops antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis (AAPMC) in response to drug therapy. Which of the following was the most likely cause of this severe problem?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clindamycin is a common cause of C. difficile-associated pseudomembranous colitis (repeated question).
Question 4 of 5
A 50-year-old man with Type 2 diabetes develops an otitis from which Pseudomonas organisms are cultured. Topical therapy with polymyxin B is effective. Which of the following best explains the drug's mechanism of action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Polymyxin B disrupts bacterial membrane permeability, targeting gram-negative bacteria like Pseudomonas.
Question 5 of 5
A 39-year-old woman with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections develops a new infection. Culture of a urine sample indicated that the offending organism is Escherichia coli. She receives therapeutic doses of ciprofloxacin. Symptoms disappear as the offending bacteria are destroyed. Which of the following is the main bacterial process or enzyme that was inhibited by levofloxacin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin (not levofloxacin as stated, likely a typo) inhibits DNA gyrase, stopping E. coli replication.