An African American patient has developed hypertension. The nurse is aware that which group(s) of antihypertensive drugs are less effective in African American patients?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Beta blockers and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors. African American patients tend to have better responses to diuretics and calcium channel blockers compared to beta blockers and ACE inhibitors. This is primarily due to genetic differences in how these drugs are metabolized in the body. Beta blockers and ACE inhibitors may be less effective in African American patients, leading to poorer blood pressure control. Additionally, these medications may have more side effects in this population. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when selecting antihypertensive medications for African American patients.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides a clear and concise definition of neurotransmitters as chemical messengers in the brain responsible for brain communication. This response directly addresses the patient's question and educates them on the role of neurotransmitters. Answer A is incorrect as it delays providing the necessary information about neurotransmitters to the patient. Answer B is incorrect as it assumes the patient is concerned about having a serious mental disorder, which may not be the case. Answer C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the treatment of neurotransmitter problems and may give the patient false expectations.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain. Step 2: Peripheral neuropathy is a type of nerve damage that causes pain. Step 3: Since the patient has no history of seizures, the most likely reason for receiving gabapentin is to manage pain associated with peripheral neuropathy. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is B: Pain associated with peripheral neuropathy. Summary: - Inflammation pain (Choice A) is not typically treated with gabapentin. - Depression associated with chronic pain (Choice C) may be managed with other medications. - Prevention of seizures (Choice D) is the primary indication for gabapentin in patients with a history of seizures, not in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When teaching a patient about disulfiram therapy, it is important to inform them about the common over-the-counter substances that contain alcohol, as consuming these can lead to a disulfiram-alcohol reaction. This reaction includes symptoms such as flushing, nausea, vomiting, and palpitations, which can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, the patient must avoid all sources of alcohol, including certain medications, mouthwashes, and even some foods. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because smoking cigarettes, experiencing similar effects as alcohol without euphoria, and assuming small amounts of alcohol are safe can all lead to serious consequences while on disulfiram therapy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dipyridamole is used in combination with warfarin to prevent postoperative thromboembolic complications. This is because dipyridamole enhances the effects of warfarin, resulting in improved prevention of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because dipyridamole does not have antiinflammatory or antipyretic properties. Choice B is incorrect because dipyridamole does not have analgesic properties and its main effect is antithrombotic. Choice C is incorrect because dipyridamole is not specifically indicated for reducing the risk of fatal and nonfatal thrombotic stroke.