An adverse effect of oral iron therapy is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale for why the correct answer is D (Constipation): 1. Iron supplements commonly cause constipation due to their effect on the gastrointestinal tract. 2. Iron slows down bowel movements and can lead to difficulty passing stool. 3. Constipation is a recognized adverse effect of oral iron therapy in medical literature. 4. Other choices are not directly related to iron therapy - anemia is treated with iron, thrombocytopenia is a low platelet count, and headache is not a common side effect of iron supplements.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for D (Minoxidil) as the correct answer: 1. Minoxidil is a vasodilator used for hypertension. 2. It acts by opening potassium channels in vascular smooth muscle cells. 3. Opening potassium channels leads to hyperpolarization, causing relaxation. 4. This relaxation reduces peripheral vascular resistance, decreasing blood pressure. Summary: A (Dipyridamole) is a platelet inhibitor, not a potassium channel opener. B (Validol) is a mild cardiac sedative. C (Atenolol) is a beta-blocker. The correct answer is D (Minoxidil) because it directly acts on potassium channels to induce vasodilation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nicergoline is the correct answer as it is a derivative of Ergot. Ergot alkaloids are compounds derived from the ergot fungus and Nicergoline falls under this category. Warfarin is a blood thinner, Cinnarizine is a calcium channel blocker, and Vinpocetine is a nootropic drug. These drugs are not derivatives of Ergot, making them incorrect choices.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because glucagon is a hormone released by the pancreas in response to low blood sugar levels. Glucagon stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver, which is the process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids and glycerol. This helps increase blood glucose levels. Choice B is incorrect because glucagon actually inhibits the secretion of insulin by beta cells. Choice C is incorrect because glucagon does not inhibit glucose utilization by skeletal muscle; instead, it promotes the breakdown of glycogen to release glucose. Choice D is incorrect because glucagon does not inhibit the uptake of amino acids by cells; it actually promotes the breakdown of stored energy sources like glycogen and fat.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Prednisolone is the correct answer because it is a short- to medium-acting glucocorticoid, with a duration of action of about 12-36 hours. Dexamethasone is a long-acting glucocorticoid, with a duration of action of 36-72 hours. Triamcinolone is also a long-acting glucocorticoid with a duration of action of 12-36 hours. Therefore, choices B and C are incorrect. Choice D is incorrect because not all of the options are short- to medium-acting drugs.