ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a decreased risk of peritonitis exists. Peritoneal dialysis involves the insertion of a catheter into the peritoneal cavity, which can introduce bacteria and increase the risk of peritonitis. However, compared to hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis has a lower risk of bloodstream infections and vascular access-related complications, leading to a decreased risk of peritonitis. This advantage makes peritoneal dialysis a favorable option for some patients. Incorrect choices: A: peritoneal dialysis is actually less time-intensive compared to hemodialysis. C: biochemical disturbances are corrected more gradually in peritoneal dialysis. D: the danger of hemorrhage is not specific to peritoneal dialysis.
Question 2 of 9
One of the strategies shown to reduce perception of stress in critically ill patients and their families is support of spirituality. What nursing action is most clearly supportive of the patients spirituality?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking about beliefs about the universe allows the nurse to understand the patient's spiritual needs and provide appropriate support. This action shows respect for the patient's beliefs and can help establish a connection between the patient and the nurse. Referring patients to a specific religious figure (choice A) may not align with the patient's beliefs. Providing prayer booklets (choice B) assumes the patient's belief system and may not be helpful. Avoiding discussing religion (choice D) can hinder the nurse-patient relationship and overlook potential sources of support for the patient.
Question 3 of 9
A 28-year-old patient who has deep human bite wounds on the left hand is being treated in the urgent care center. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the patient the reason for the use of prophylactic antibiotics. This is the most important action because human bites can introduce harmful bacteria into the wound, leading to infection. Prophylactic antibiotics help prevent infection in deep human bite wounds. Choice A is incorrect because rabies immune globulin is not indicated for human bite wounds. Choice B is incorrect because suturing human bite wounds can trap bacteria and increase the risk of infection. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the wounds dry is not sufficient; proper wound cleaning and antibiotic treatment are essential in this case.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient an d responds to a high inspiratory pressure alarm. Recognizing possible causes for the alarma, btihrbe.c nomu/rtesset assesses for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disconnection from the ventilator. This is the correct choice because a high inspiratory pressure alarm can indicate a disconnection, leading to inadequate ventilation and increased pressure in the circuit. This can be a life-threatening situation that requires immediate attention. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Coughing or attempting to talk - While coughing or talking may affect the patient's ability to ventilate properly, it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm. C: Kinks in the ventilator tubing - Kinks in the tubing may cause increased resistance to airflow, but they are more likely to trigger a low pressure alarm rather than a high inspiratory pressure alarm. D: Need for suctioning - Suctioning may be necessary for airway clearance, but it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with end-stage heart failure is experiencing consaibdirebr.caobmle/te dsty spnea. What is the appropriate pharmacological management of this symptom ?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initiation of a continuous morphine infusion. Morphine is the preferred pharmacological management for severe dyspnea in end-stage heart failure due to its potent analgesic and anxiolytic properties. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Morphine is a potent opioid that helps relieve dyspnea by reducing anxiety, decreasing respiratory drive, and improving overall comfort. 2. The initial IV bolus of 5 mg provides rapid relief of dyspnea. 3. Initiating a continuous morphine infusion ensures sustained relief of dyspnea. 4. Midazolam (choice A) is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiety, but it is not the first-line treatment for dyspnea in this scenario. 5. Increasing the midazolam (choice C) or morphine (choice D) infusions by 100% dose increments hourly is not appropriate as
Question 6 of 9
The nurse cares for an adolescent patient who is dying. The patient’s parents are interested in organ donation and ask the nurse how the decision about brain death is made. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Brain death has occurred if there is no breathing and certain reflexes are absent. Brain death is defined as the irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brainstem. The absence of breathing and certain reflexes, such as no response to painful stimuli or no pupillary response to light, are key indicators of brain death. This definition is crucial for determining eligibility for organ donation. Incorrect choices: A: Brain death occurs if a person is flaccid and unresponsive. Flaccidity and unresponsiveness are not specific criteria for diagnosing brain death. B: If CPR is ineffective in restoring a heartbeat, the brain cannot function. The absence of a heartbeat alone does not indicate brain death. D: If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present. Respiratory cessation and the absence of pulse are not definitive signs of brain death.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with an admitting diagnosis of congestive failure. While attempting to obtain a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure in the supine position, the patient becomes anxious and tachypneic. What is the best action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees while recording pressures. Rationale: 1. Elevating the head of the bed will help improve the patient's breathing by reducing the pressure on the diaphragm. 2. This position will also help alleviate the patient's anxiety and tachypnea, promoting better oxygenation. 3. Recording pressures in this position will provide accurate data for monitoring the patient's condition. Summary: A: Limiting the supine position to 10 seconds does not address the underlying issues causing the patient's anxiety and tachypnea. B: Administering anxiety medications without addressing the positioning issue may not effectively manage the patient's symptoms. C: Encouraging the patient to take slow deep breaths is helpful, but changing the position of the patient is more crucial in this situation.
Question 8 of 9
Noninvasive diagnostic procedures used to determine kidney function include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) x-ray. This procedure is noninvasive and commonly used to assess kidney function by visualizing the size, shape, and position of the kidneys. Renal ultrasound is also noninvasive and can provide detailed images of the kidneys. However, MRI and IVP are more invasive procedures that involve the use of contrast agents and are not typically used solely for diagnostic purposes to assess kidney function. Overall, KUB x-ray and renal ultrasound are the preferred noninvasive options for evaluating kidney function.
Question 9 of 9
What is a strategy for preventing thromboembolism in pat ients at risk who cannot take anticoagulants?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insertion of a vena cava filter. This is a strategy for preventing thromboembolism in patients at risk who cannot take anticoagulants. The vena cava filter prevents blood clots from traveling to the lungs by trapping them in the inferior vena cava. It is a mechanical device that does not interfere with the body's clotting process. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Administration of two aspirin tablets every 4 hours is not an effective strategy for preventing thromboembolism in high-risk patients. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent and may not be sufficient for preventing blood clots in these patients. B: Infusion of thrombolytics is used for breaking down blood clots that have already formed, not for prevention. It is not a suitable option for preventing thromboembolism in at-risk patients. D: Subcutaneous heparin administration every 12