ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a decreased risk of peritonitis exists. Peritoneal dialysis involves the insertion of a catheter into the peritoneal cavity, which can introduce bacteria and increase the risk of peritonitis. However, compared to hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis has a lower risk of bloodstream infections and vascular access-related complications, leading to a decreased risk of peritonitis. This advantage makes peritoneal dialysis a favorable option for some patients. Incorrect choices: A: peritoneal dialysis is actually less time-intensive compared to hemodialysis. C: biochemical disturbances are corrected more gradually in peritoneal dialysis. D: the danger of hemorrhage is not specific to peritoneal dialysis.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a motor vehicle collision is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal ultrasonography. This is because ultrasonography is a non-invasive imaging technique that can quickly evaluate for internal injuries such as organ damage or bleeding in patients with blunt abdominal trauma. It is a rapid and effective diagnostic tool to assess the extent of injury and guide further management. Peritoneal lavage (A) is an invasive procedure used in trauma settings to detect intra-abdominal bleeding but is not typically used for teaching purposes. Nasogastric tube placement (C) is used for decompression and drainage in certain conditions but is not relevant for assessing abdominal trauma. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D) is not typically used as the initial imaging modality for acute trauma due to time constraints and its limited availability in emergency settings.
Question 3 of 9
The primary care provider orders the following mechanica l ventilation settings for a patient who weighs 75 kg and whose spontaneous respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min. What arterial blood gas abnormality may occur if the patient continues taob ibrbe.c otamc/thesyt pneic at these ventilator settings? Settings: Tidal volume: 600 mL (8 mL per kg) FiO 2: 0.5 Respiratory rate: 14 breaths/min Mode assist/control Positive end-expiratory pressure: 10 cm H O
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory acidosis may occur if the patient continues at these ventilator settings. Respiratory acidosis happens when the lungs cannot remove enough of the carbon dioxide (CO2) produced by the body. In this case, the low respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min may not be sufficient to adequately remove CO2, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This results in a decrease in blood pH, causing respiratory acidosis. Summary of other choices: A: Metabolic acidosis - Not the correct answer as the ventilator settings are more likely to affect the respiratory system rather than the metabolic system. B: Metabolic alkalosis - Not the correct answer as the ventilator settings are not related to causing an increase in blood pH, which is characteristic of metabolic alkalosis. D: Respiratory alkalosis - Not the correct answer as the low respiratory rate would not lead to excessive elimination of CO2, causing alkalosis.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with chroni c obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment would be a cue to the patient developing postoperative pneumonia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change in sputum characteristics. This is a cue for postoperative pneumonia in a COPD patient because it can indicate an infection in the lungs. Postoperative pneumonia is a common complication in patients with COPD due to impaired lung function and weakened immune system. Other choices are incorrect: A) Bradycardia is not a specific indicator of postoperative pneumonia. C) Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis can be seen in patients with COPD but are not specific to postoperative pneumonia. D) Pursed-lip breathing is a coping mechanism for patients with COPD and is not directly related to postoperative pneumonia.
Question 5 of 9
To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most reliable method to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement in the trachea. This method detects exhaled CO2, indicating proper tube placement in the trachea. It is a quick and efficient way to confirm placement without delay, reducing the risk of complications. A: Auscultating for bilateral breath sounds is not as reliable because breath sounds may be heard even if the tube is misplaced. B: Obtaining a portable chest x-ray is not the best initial action as it takes time and delays confirming tube placement. C: Observing chest movement may not provide conclusive evidence of proper tube placement and can lead to misinterpretation. In summary, using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most accurate and efficient method to verify correct endotracheal tube placement compared to the other options.
Question 6 of 9
Renin plays a role in blood pressure regulation by
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade, which ultimately leads to vasoconstriction, increased blood pressure, and aldosterone release to increase sodium and water reabsorption. Renin does not suppress angiotensin production (B), decrease sodium reabsorption (C), or inhibit aldosterone release (D), as these actions would counteract its role in blood pressure regulation.
Question 7 of 9
The patient’s significant other is terrified by the prospect o f removing life-sustaining treatments from the patient and asks why anyone would do that. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it explains that the decision to remove life-sustaining treatments is based on the fact that these treatments are not helping the patient and may actually be causing discomfort. This rationale aligns with the principle of beneficence, which emphasizes doing good and avoiding harm to the patient. It also respects the patient's autonomy by prioritizing their well-being and quality of life. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on financial reasons rather than the patient's best interest. Choice B is incorrect because it prioritizes hospital resources over individual patient care. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity and may come across as insensitive to the significant other's concerns.
Question 8 of 9
A patient in the ICU has recently been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Before being discharged, this patient will require detailed instructions on how to manage her diet, how to self-inject insulin, and how to handle future diabetic emergencies. Which nurse competency is most needed in this situation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Facilitation of learning. In this scenario, the nurse needs to effectively educate the patient on managing her diet, insulin injections, and handling emergencies. Facilitation of learning involves assessing the patient's learning needs, providing relevant information, demonstrating skills, and evaluating understanding. This competency is crucial for promoting patient education and empowerment in managing their condition. A: Clinical judgment involves making decisions based on assessment data, which is important but not the primary focus in this situation. B: Advocacy and moral agency involve standing up for patients' rights and values, which is important but not as directly relevant to the patient's education needs. C: Caring practices involve showing empathy and compassion, which are essential but not the main competency required for educational purposes in this case.
Question 9 of 9
The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient’s lungs. Rhabdomyolysis can lead to acute kidney injury due to myoglobin release from damaged muscle cells. IV fluids and mannitol are given to prevent kidney damage by promoting myoglobin excretion. Assessing the patient’s lungs is crucial to monitor for potential complications such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) which can occur as a result of rhabdomyolysis. This assessment helps to ensure early detection and prompt intervention if respiratory issues arise. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Assess the patient’s hearing - This is not directly related to rhabdomyolysis or its treatment. C: Decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered - Decreasing IV fluids can exacerbate kidney injury in rhabdomyolysis. D: Give extra doses before giving radiological contrast agents - Mannitol is not routinely given before radiological contrast agents in the context of rhabdomyolysis management.