ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
An adult suffered 2nd and third degree burns over 20% of hid body 2 days ago. What is the best way to assess the client’s fluid balance?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain strict records of intake and output. This is the best way to assess fluid balance in a burn patient because it provides quantitative data on fluid intake and output, helping to monitor for fluid imbalance. Monitoring skin turgor (B) is unreliable in burn patients due to skin damage. Weighing the client daily (C) may not accurately reflect fluid balance changes. Checking for edema (D) is not specific to assessing fluid balance in burn patients. Maintaining intake and output records allows for precise monitoring and early detection of fluid shifts, making it the most appropriate choice.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse finds Mr. Gabatan under the wreckage of the car. He is conscious, breathing satisfactorily, and lying on the back complaining of pain in the back and an inability to move his legs. The nurse should first:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in cases of suspected spinal injury, it is crucial to keep the spine immobilized to prevent further damage. Rolling Mr. Gabatan onto his abdomen helps protect his spine by maintaining alignment. Placing a pad under his head provides support and covering him with any material available helps maintain his body temperature. Moving him without proper spinal precautions (options A, B, D) could worsen his condition. Seeking additional help is important, but ensuring spinal immobilization comes first. Sitting him up or moving him onto a flat piece of lumber can exacerbate spinal injuries. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate initial action.
Question 3 of 5
If a client with increased pressure (ICP) demonstrates decorticate posturing, the nurse will observe:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because decorticate posturing is characterized by flexion of both upper and lower extremities. This occurs due to damage to the cerebral hemispheres, resulting in abnormal muscle contractions. Choice B describes decerebrate posturing, which is associated with extension of elbows and knees. Choice C is incorrect as it describes abnormal posturing seen in other conditions. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a different type of abnormal posturing.
Question 4 of 5
Mr Santos is placed on seizure precaution. Which of the following would be contraindicated?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain his oral temperature. Seizure precautions typically include avoiding putting objects in the mouth to prevent injury during a seizure. Taking an oral temperature involves placing an object in the mouth, which could pose a risk if a seizure occurs. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindicated as they do not directly involve potential risks during a seizure. Allowing the patient to wear his own clothing, encouraging personal hygiene, and promoting mobility are safe practices that do not increase the risk of harm during a seizure.
Question 5 of 5
A 32 y.o. male patient is admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre Syndrome. His legs are weak, and he is unable to walk without assistance. Which of the ff. is most likely responsible for this syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Autoimmune reaction. Guillain-Barre Syndrome is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. This is supported by the patient's presentation of weakness in the legs. Bacterial infection (A) can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome, but it is not the root cause. High-fat diet (B) and heredity (C) are not associated with the development of this syndrome. In summary, autoimmune reaction is the primary mechanism underlying Guillain-Barre Syndrome, resulting in the patient's muscle weakness and inability to walk.