Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Pent-up emotions are emotions that are suppressed or not expressed. Step 2: Unexpressed feelings, especially from past traumatic events, can lead to emotional distress. Step 3: Long-term suppression can manifest as depression or other mental health disorders. Step 4: Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate response as it highlights the potential negative consequences of unexpressed emotions. Summary: - Choice B assumes the father has processed his grief, which may not be the case. - Choice C oversimplifies the complexity of emotional expression and may not address the root issue. - Choice D jumps to an extreme outcome without considering the range of possible consequences.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because discussing feelings about leaving the group and the support found within the group is crucial during the termination phase. This allows for processing emotions, reflecting on progress, and providing closure. Choice A focuses on future goals, not on the current phase. Choice B addresses time constraints, not emotional support. Choice C is about coping strategies, which may not be the priority during termination. Thus, D is the most appropriate intervention for this phase.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because stating the goals of the group is reflective of the forming stage where members clarify the purpose and direction. Choice B is incorrect as determining leadership roles typically occurs during the storming stage. Choice C is incorrect as involving family members is not part of the group development process. Choice D is incorrect as discussing personal situations usually happens during the norming or performing stages, not in the initial forming stage.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because showing no emotion when discussing a personal tragedy is indicative of blunted affect, a negative symptom commonly seen in residual schizophrenia. This behavior aligns with the diagnostic criteria for residual schizophrenia, which includes the presence of negative symptoms like flat affect. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to negative symptoms of schizophrenia. A communicating style or claims about worms do not specifically indicate negative symptoms, and maintaining arms awkwardly overhead is not a typical symptom of residual schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of multiple drugs with anticholinergic effects. This is the highest priority as anticholinergic medications can have severe side effects in older adults, including confusion, constipation, and increased risk of falls. Nurses need to assess for potential harm caused by these medications. Choice B (Overuse of medications for erectile dysfunction) is not the highest priority as it may not pose an immediate threat to the health and safety of older adults compared to anticholinergic effects. Choice C (Missed doses of medications for arthritis) is important but not as critical as assessing for the potential harm caused by anticholinergic medications. Choice D (Trading medications with acquaintances) is concerning but not as urgent as assessing for the harmful effects of anticholinergic medications, which can lead to serious health complications.