ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An adult is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item can be offered/
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jello. A clear liquid diet includes transparent liquids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Jello meets this criteria as it is a clear, easily digestible food. Milk (A) is not allowed on a clear liquid diet due to its opaque nature. Orange juice (B) contains pulp and is not considered clear. Ice cream (D) is a solid food and not permitted on a clear liquid diet. Therefore, Jello is the most suitable option for someone on a clear liquid diet.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is taking vital signs of a pregnant woman during her first prenatal visit. The patient asks the nurse if she has to have an HIV test. Which of the following is the nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): The nurse's best response is to inform the pregnant woman that all pregnant women must have an HIV test. This is because HIV testing is a standard part of prenatal care to prevent mother-to-child transmission. It is crucial to detect HIV early to provide appropriate treatment and prevent transmission to the baby. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: This response could lead to misinformation and potentially harm the patient and her baby. HIV testing is recommended for all pregnant women regardless of risk factors. C: While governmental guidelines may vary, it is essential for all pregnant women to undergo HIV testing to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby. D: While it is important to provide counseling and involve the patient in decision-making, in the case of HIV testing during pregnancy, it is a standard procedure that should be offered to all pregnant women to safeguard their health and that of their baby.
Question 3 of 9
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. Which nutrient is not likely to be in the solution?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: trace minerals. TPN solutions typically include dextrose for energy, electrolytes for maintaining fluid balance, and amino acids for protein synthesis. Trace minerals are not typically included in TPN solutions as they are only required in small amounts and can be toxic in excess. Therefore, it is not likely to be in the solution. The other choices (A, B, D) are essential components of TPN solutions necessary for meeting the nutritional needs of the patient.
Question 4 of 9
A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is orienting a new graduate registered nurse to an oncology unit where blood product transfusions are frequently administered. In discussing ABO compatibility, the CNS presents several hypothetical scenarios. A well-informed new graduate would know the greatest likelihood of an acute hemolytic reaction would occur when giving:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A-positive blood to an A-negative client. This is because in ABO blood typing, individuals with blood type A have anti-B antibodies in their plasma. Therefore, if A-positive blood (which contains the A antigen) is given to an A-negative client (who has anti-A antibodies), there is a high risk of an acute hemolytic reaction due to the antibodies attacking the transfused blood cells. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve a mismatch of ABO blood types that would lead to a significant risk of acute hemolytic reaction. In choice B, O-positive blood can be safely transfused to an A-positive client as O blood is considered the universal donor. In choice C, O-negative blood can be safely given to an O-positive client as O-negative blood is compatible with all blood types. In choice D, B-positive blood can be safely administered to an AB-positive client as the AB blood type can receive both
Question 5 of 9
To combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, the nurse would administer an:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps manage these side effects and improve the patient's quality of life during chemotherapy. Antibiotics (B) are used to treat bacterial infections, not chemotherapy side effects. Antimetabolites (C) are a type of chemotherapy drug, not used to combat its side effects. Anticoagulants (D) are used to prevent blood clots and are not indicated for managing chemotherapy side effects like nausea and vomiting.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements about fluid replacement is accurate for a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer 6L of IV fluid over the first 24 hours. In HHNS, dehydration is severe due to high blood glucose levels causing osmotic diuresis. Rapid infusion of fluid can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate the situation. Administering 6L over 24 hours helps gradually replenish lost fluids without causing circulatory overload. Choice A is incorrect because rapid infusion can lead to fluid overload. Choice C is incorrect because adding dextrose to the solution can further increase blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because administering IV fluids slowly can delay rehydration in a critical situation like HHNS.
Question 7 of 9
What is the primary purpose of validation as a part of assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of validation in assessment is to ensure that the data collected is accurate and reliable to plan appropriate nursing care. Validation helps confirm the accuracy of data, identify inconsistencies, and ensure that the information gathered is trustworthy. By verifying the data, nurses can make informed decisions and tailor individualized care plans to meet the patient's needs effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the purpose of validation in assessment. Choice A focuses on the identification of data, not the purpose of validation. Choice B and C pertain to communication and relationships, which are important but not the primary purpose of validation in the assessment process.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). To adhere to standard precautions, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wear gloves when providing mouth care. This is because standard precautions for AIDS include wearing gloves when in contact with bodily fluids, such as saliva during mouth care. Maintaining strict isolation (A) is not necessary as AIDS is not transmitted through casual contact. Keeping the client in a private room (C) is not required unless the client has an airborne infection. Wearing a gown when delivering food tray (D) is not necessary for standard precautions unless there is a risk of contamination with bodily fluids.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is teaching the client about risk factors for diabetes mellitus. Which of the following risk factors for diabetes mellitus is nonmodifiable?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Define nonmodifiable risk factors - these are factors that cannot be changed or controlled by the individual. Step 2: Advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is determined by genetics and time. Step 3: Poor control of blood glucose levels, foot trauma, and inappropriate foot care are modifiable risk factors that can be managed through lifestyle changes or medical interventions. Summary: Choice D is correct because advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for diabetes mellitus, while the other choices involve factors that can be modified through appropriate actions.