ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An adult is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item can be offered/
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jello. A clear liquid diet includes transparent liquids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Jello meets this criteria as it is a clear, easily digestible food. Milk (A) is not allowed on a clear liquid diet due to its opaque nature. Orange juice (B) contains pulp and is not considered clear. Ice cream (D) is a solid food and not permitted on a clear liquid diet. Therefore, Jello is the most suitable option for someone on a clear liquid diet.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following client outcomes best describes the parameters for achieving the outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it provides specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) parameters for achieving the outcome. It outlines the calorie intake, meal frequency, and start date, which allows for clear monitoring and evaluation of progress. Choice A is too vague and lacks specificity. Choice C focuses on wound care, not dietary goals. Choice D lacks specificity and a timeframe, making it difficult to measure success. In conclusion, choice B is the best option as it aligns with effective goal-setting principles.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse conducts an assessment and notes that the client has abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips. How should the nurse categorize these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Objective data. Abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips are all observable and measurable findings that can be verified by the nurse through assessment. Objective data refers to information that can be observed or measured, providing concrete evidence of the client's condition. In this case, the nurse directly perceives these physical signs during the assessment, making them objective data. Summary: - A: Subjective data involves the client's feelings or opinions, which are not directly observable by the nurse. - C: Secondary data are information obtained from other sources, not directly from the client. - D: Primary data are firsthand information collected directly from the client, but in this scenario, the findings are observable physical signs, making them objective data.
Question 4 of 9
Why does the nurse instruct the client to avoid Valsalva maneuvers?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because performing Valsalva maneuver can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure, causing the client to lose consciousness. This occurs due to the increased intra-abdominal pressure leading to decreased venous return to the heart. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the consequences of Valsalva maneuver. Option A stating that the client's blood pressure will decrease momentarily is incorrect as it actually increases initially. Option C suggesting that the client may suffer from a myocardial infarction is incorrect as Valsalva maneuver does not directly cause heart attacks. Option D implying that the client's blood pressure will increase momentarily is also incorrect as the immediate effect is a rise followed by a significant drop.
Question 5 of 9
The most effective pharmacologic agent for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for treating Parkinson's disease because it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing the deficient dopamine levels in Parkinson's patients. Selegiline and Symmetrel are also used in treating Parkinson's, but they are typically used as adjunctive therapy rather than the primary treatment. Permax has been withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an incorrect choice.
Question 6 of 9
Compartment syndrome is a potential complication of elbow fractures that decreases circulation to local neuromuscular structures. The nurse monitors circulation on a casted elbow because irreversible damage can develop if compartment syndrome lasts for more than:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 24 hours. Compartment syndrome occurs when pressure within a closed muscle compartment increases, leading to decreased circulation and potential tissue damage. Monitoring is crucial as irreversible damage can occur if left untreated. The 6 Ps (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure) are key indicators. Waiting for 48 hours (choice A) or 12 hours (choice C) is too long and can result in severe consequences. 2 hours (choice B) is too short a timeframe to assess for irreversible damage development, making 24 hours (choice D) the most appropriate timeframe for monitoring and intervention.
Question 7 of 9
Nursing assessment for a patient with metabolic alkalosis includes evaluation of laboratory data for all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH is elevated due to an excess of bicarbonate. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can be seen in other conditions like diabetes or fasting. Evaluating for hypocalcemia (A) is important as alkalosis can lead to decreased ionized calcium levels. Hypokalemia (B) is common in metabolic alkalosis due to potassium loss. Hypoxemia (D) is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can occur in severe cases due to respiratory compensation. Therefore, hypoglycemia is the least relevant in assessing metabolic alkalosis.
Question 8 of 9
A patient admitted with gastrointestinal tract bleeding has a hemoglobin level of 6 g/dL. She asks the nurse why she feels SOB. Which response is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hemoglobin carries oxygen to the tissues, and with a low hemoglobin level of 6 g/dL, there is insufficient oxygen-carrying capacity to meet the body's needs, leading to shortness of breath (SOB). Choice A is incorrect as anemia affects oxygen transport, not absorption. Choice C is incorrect as anemia affects oxygen delivery, not nutrient delivery. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for SOB in this scenario is the lack of oxygen-carrying capacity due to low hemoglobin levels, not lung damage from blood loss.
Question 9 of 9
To combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, the nurse would administer an:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps manage these side effects and improve the patient's quality of life during chemotherapy. Antibiotics (B) are used to treat bacterial infections, not chemotherapy side effects. Antimetabolites (C) are a type of chemotherapy drug, not used to combat its side effects. Anticoagulants (D) are used to prevent blood clots and are not indicated for managing chemotherapy side effects like nausea and vomiting.