ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
An adult is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item can be offered/
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jello. A clear liquid diet includes transparent liquids that do not contain any solid particles, providing easily digestible nutrients. Jello meets these criteria as it is a clear, gelatin-based dessert that melts into a liquid form at room temperature. Rationale: 1. Jello is a clear liquid that does not contain solid particles, making it suitable for a clear liquid diet. 2. Milk (A) and ice cream (D) are not considered clear liquids as they contain fats and proteins, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. 3. Orange juice (B) contains pulp and fibers, making it unsuitable for a clear liquid diet. Summary: Jello is the correct choice because it meets the criteria of being a clear liquid without solid particles. Milk, orange juice, and ice cream are not appropriate choices for a clear liquid diet due to their composition.
Question 2 of 5
What is the best initial action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse to take is A: Try to have the client breathe slower. This is because the client may be experiencing respiratory distress, and slowing down their breathing can help improve oxygenation. Giving O2 via nasal cannula (B) should be considered if the client's oxygen saturation is low after trying to slow down their breathing. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) is not the appropriate initial action unless the client is experiencing severe acidosis. Monitoring the client's fluid balance (D) is important but not the best initial action in this scenario where respiratory distress is the concern.
Question 3 of 5
Severe and extensive hemolysis causes which of the ff?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe and extensive hemolysis leads to the release of large amounts of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing hemoglobinemia. This can result in hemoglobinuria, leading to acute renal failure and ultimately shock. Shock is the correct answer as it is a severe consequence of extensive hemolysis. Leg ulcers (A) may occur in conditions like peripheral arterial disease. Priapism (C) is unrelated to hemolysis. Compromised growth (D) is not a common consequence of hemolysis.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse completes a thorough assessment of a patient and analyzes the data to identify nursing diagnoses. Which step will the nurse take next in the nursing process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct next step after identifying nursing diagnoses is planning. Planning involves setting goals and creating a plan of care to address the patient's needs based on the identified nursing diagnoses. This step helps in determining interventions and outcomes for the patient. Assessment has already been completed, and diagnosis is the step where nursing diagnoses are identified. Implementation comes after planning, where the nurse carries out the planned interventions. Therefore, the logical next step in the nursing process after identifying nursing diagnoses is planning.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the ff interventions is implemented for a client with empyema?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Emphasize the completion of the entire course of drug therapy. Empyema is a serious condition that requires antibiotic treatment. Emphasizing the completion of the entire course of drug therapy is crucial to ensure that the infection is completely eradicated and to prevent the development of drug-resistant strains. Teaching breathing exercises (choice A) may help improve lung function but is not the primary intervention for empyema. Offering assurance that empyema takes less time to resolve (choice B) is incorrect as it can mislead the client about the seriousness of the condition. Recommending a balanced but light diet (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but is not directly related to treating empyema.
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