ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
An adult is diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation. The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for which of the following nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alteration in tissue perfusion related to bleeding and diminished blood flow. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition where blood clots form throughout the body, leading to both bleeding and clotting. This can result in decreased blood flow to tissues, causing tissue perfusion issues. Explanation: 1. Option A: Risk for increased cardiac output related to fluid volume excess is incorrect because DIC can lead to bleeding, causing a decrease in blood volume and potentially decreasing cardiac output. 2. Option B: Disturbed sensory perception related to bleeding into tissues is incorrect as DIC primarily affects blood clotting and bleeding, not sensory perception. 3. Option D: Risk for aspiration related to constriction of the respiratory musculature is incorrect as DIC does not directly cause constriction of respiratory muscles, but rather impacts the clotting and bleeding processes in the body. In summary, the correct answer is C because DIC can lead to altered tissue perfusion
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cancerous lumps. Breast self-examination aims to detect any abnormal changes in the breasts, including potential cancerous lumps. Detecting cancerous lumps early increases the chances of successful treatment and improved outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while changes from previous self-examinations, areas of thickness or fullness, and fibrocystic masses can be important to note, the primary goal of breast self-examination is to identify any signs of breast cancer, such as cancerous lumps.
Question 3 of 5
A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected thyroid cancer. What is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Papillary carcinoma. This is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults, accounting for about 80% of cases. It is typically slow-growing and has a good prognosis. Papillary carcinoma arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Follicular carcinoma (choice A) is less common than papillary carcinoma and arises from the follicular cells as well. Anaplastic carcinoma (choice B) is a highly aggressive and rare form of thyroid cancer. Medullary carcinoma (choice C) originates from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland and is not as common as papillary carcinoma. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is D, papillary carcinoma, due to its high prevalence and relatively favorable prognosis.
Question 4 of 5
As part of primary cancer prevention program, an oncology nurse answers questions from the public at health fair. When someone asks about the laryngeal cancer, the nurse should explain that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Laryngeal cancer is one of the most preventable types of cancer. This is because the primary risk factors for laryngeal cancer are largely related to lifestyle choices such as smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and exposure to certain occupational hazards. By avoiding these risk factors, individuals can significantly reduce their chances of developing laryngeal cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Inhaling polluted air isn’t a risk factor for laryngeal cancer - This is incorrect as exposure to polluted air can contribute to the development of laryngeal cancer. C: Laryngeal cancer occurs primarily in women - This is incorrect as laryngeal cancer occurs more frequently in men than in women. D: Adenocarcinoma accounts for most cases of laryngeal cancer - This is incorrect as squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of laryngeal cancer, not adenocarcin
Question 5 of 5
To combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, the nurse would administer an:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps manage these side effects and improve the patient's quality of life during chemotherapy. Antibiotics (B) are used to treat bacterial infections, not chemotherapy side effects. Antimetabolites (C) are a type of chemotherapy drug, not used to combat its side effects. Anticoagulants (D) are used to prevent blood clots and are not indicated for managing chemotherapy side effects like nausea and vomiting.