An adult is diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation. The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for which of the following nursing diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alteration in tissue perfusion related to bleeding and diminished blood flow. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition where blood clots form throughout the body, leading to both bleeding and clotting. This can result in decreased blood flow to tissues, causing tissue perfusion issues. Explanation: 1. Option A: Risk for increased cardiac output related to fluid volume excess is incorrect because DIC can lead to bleeding, causing a decrease in blood volume and potentially decreasing cardiac output. 2. Option B: Disturbed sensory perception related to bleeding into tissues is incorrect as DIC primarily affects blood clotting and bleeding, not sensory perception. 3. Option D: Risk for aspiration related to constriction of the respiratory musculature is incorrect as DIC does not directly cause constriction of respiratory muscles, but rather impacts the clotting and bleeding processes in the body. In summary, the correct answer is C because DIC can lead to altered tissue perfusion

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it provides specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) parameters for achieving the outcome. It outlines the calorie intake, meal frequency, and start date, which allows for clear monitoring and evaluation of progress. Choice A is too vague and lacks specificity. Choice C focuses on wound care, not dietary goals. Choice D lacks specificity and a timeframe, making it difficult to measure success. In conclusion, choice B is the best option as it aligns with effective goal-setting principles.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of laryngospasm. Laryngospasm is a serious complication of trauma to the upper airway that can lead to airway obstruction. Assessing for laryngospasm is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Pain when talking (A) is more related to vocal cord injury, increased nasal swelling (B) is a symptom of nasal trauma, and burning in the throat (C) may indicate pharyngeal injury, but laryngospasm (D) directly affects airway patency in upper airway trauma cases.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (600ml/24hr) because insensible fluid losses in an afebrile person are typically around 600ml per 24 hours. Insensible losses include water lost through the skin as sweat and through the lungs during respiration. These losses are not easily quantifiable but are estimated to be around 600ml/day in normal circumstances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are either too low (A and B) or too high (D) compared to the normal range of insensible fluid losses. Selecting C as the correct answer is based on the understanding of physiological principles related to fluid balance and normal body functions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer 6L of IV fluid over the first 24 hours. In HHNS, dehydration is severe due to high blood glucose levels causing osmotic diuresis. Rapid infusion of fluid can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate the situation. Administering 6L over 24 hours helps gradually replenish lost fluids without causing circulatory overload. Choice A is incorrect because rapid infusion can lead to fluid overload. Choice C is incorrect because adding dextrose to the solution can further increase blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because administering IV fluids slowly can delay rehydration in a critical situation like HHNS.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication following hypophysectomy (removal of the pituitary gland). This procedure can disrupt the regulation of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to excessive urination. Choice A is incorrect as decreased stress would not cause polyuria. Choice B is unlikely as the onset of diabetes mellitus is not a typical immediate postoperative complication. Choice C is incorrect as removal of the pituitary gland would disrupt hormone regulation, possibly leading to polyuria, rather than being an expected result.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Turn frequently every 2 hours. This helps redistribute pressure, preventing constant pressure on one area and reducing the risk of developing pressure ulcers. Turning every 2 hours promotes circulation and relieves pressure points. A: Massaging reddened areas can worsen the condition by increasing friction and pressure. B: While a special water mattress can help in preventing pressure ulcers, turning frequently is more effective. D: Keeping the skin clean and dry is important for overall skin health but may not directly prevent pressure ulcers.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cancerous lumps. Breast self-examination aims to detect any abnormal changes in the breasts, including potential cancerous lumps. Detecting cancerous lumps early increases the chances of successful treatment and improved outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while changes from previous self-examinations, areas of thickness or fullness, and fibrocystic masses can be important to note, the primary goal of breast self-examination is to identify any signs of breast cancer, such as cancerous lumps.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because performing Valsalva maneuver can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure, causing the client to lose consciousness. This occurs due to the increased intra-abdominal pressure leading to decreased venous return to the heart. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the consequences of Valsalva maneuver. Option A stating that the client's blood pressure will decrease momentarily is incorrect as it actually increases initially. Option C suggesting that the client may suffer from a myocardial infarction is incorrect as Valsalva maneuver does not directly cause heart attacks. Option D implying that the client's blood pressure will increase momentarily is also incorrect as the immediate effect is a rise followed by a significant drop.