ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An adult is diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation. The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for which of the following nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alteration in tissue perfusion related to bleeding and diminished blood flow. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition where blood clots form throughout the body, leading to both bleeding and clotting. This can result in decreased blood flow to tissues, causing tissue perfusion issues. Explanation: 1. Option A: Risk for increased cardiac output related to fluid volume excess is incorrect because DIC can lead to bleeding, causing a decrease in blood volume and potentially decreasing cardiac output. 2. Option B: Disturbed sensory perception related to bleeding into tissues is incorrect as DIC primarily affects blood clotting and bleeding, not sensory perception. 3. Option D: Risk for aspiration related to constriction of the respiratory musculature is incorrect as DIC does not directly cause constriction of respiratory muscles, but rather impacts the clotting and bleeding processes in the body. In summary, the correct answer is C because DIC can lead to altered tissue perfusion
Question 2 of 9
The ff are the tonometer measurements of five clients. Which of them has normal intraocular pressure (IOP)? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The normal range for intraocular pressure (IOP) is approximately 10-21 mm Hg. Choice C has an IOP of 11 mm Hg, falling within this normal range, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are outside the normal range, with A being too low and B and D being too high, indicating abnormal IOP levels. Choice A (8 mm Hg) is below the normal range, while choices B (25 mm Hg) and D (28 mm Hg) are above the normal range, therefore, they are incorrect answers.
Question 3 of 9
Which patient is most at risk for fluid volume overload?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the 35-year-old with kidney failure. Patients with kidney failure are at high risk for fluid volume overload due to the kidneys' inability to properly regulate fluid balance. This can lead to accumulation of excess fluids in the body, causing edema, hypertension, and heart failure. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are not at as high risk for fluid volume overload as patients with kidney failure, as their conditions do not directly impact fluid regulation in the body.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse would expect which of the following would be included in the plan of care/
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Monitoring electrolytes is essential to assess for potential imbalances due to the use of sodium bicarbonate, which can lead to hypokalemia and hypocalcemia. Step 2: Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Step 3: By monitoring electrolytes, the nurse can detect imbalances early and intervene promptly to prevent adverse effects. Summary: A: Drinking excessive water can lead to electrolyte imbalances and is not directly related to the use of sodium bicarbonate. B: Administering NaHCO3 IV is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should be done based on physician's orders. C: Continuing sodium bicarbonate for nausea may not be appropriate without monitoring electrolytes to prevent potential imbalances.
Question 5 of 9
Which part of the brain controls breathing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medulla. The medulla is located in the brainstem and plays a crucial role in controlling involuntary functions like breathing. It contains the respiratory center, which regulates the rate and depth of breathing. The medulla sends signals to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles to control breathing. The cerebrum (B) is responsible for higher brain functions, not breathing control. The cerebellum (C) coordinates movement and balance, not breathing. The thalamus (D) relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex, not involved in breathing regulation.
Question 6 of 9
What is the most important postoperative instruction the nurse must give a client who has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.” After a subarachnoid block, the client must remain lying down to prevent complications like spinal headaches due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage. This position helps maintain adequate spinal fluid pressure. Choice A is incorrect as fluid intake is important postoperatively. Choice B is not relevant to a subarachnoid block. Choice C is important but not the most crucial instruction compared to maintaining the supine position.
Question 7 of 9
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Safety: Recording vital signs is crucial for patient safety. 2. Accountability: The nurse is ultimately responsible for ensuring vital signs are documented accurately. 3. Communication: It is essential for the nurse to communicate with the NAP to address the missed vital signs. 4. Corrective Action: Asking the NAP to record vital signs before administering medications ensures proper monitoring. 5. Patient-Centered Care: Prioritizing patient well-being by ensuring vital signs are up-to-date. Summary: A: Incorrect. Administering medications without vital sign assessment is unsafe. B: Incorrect. Reviewing vital signs upon return does not address the immediate need for accurate documentation. D: Incorrect. Omitting vital signs compromises patient safety and violates standard nursing practice.
Question 8 of 9
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. Which nutrient is not likely to be in the solution?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: trace minerals. TPN solutions typically include dextrose for energy, electrolytes for maintaining fluid balance, and amino acids for protein synthesis. Trace minerals are not typically included in TPN solutions as they are only required in small amounts and can be toxic in excess. Therefore, it is not likely to be in the solution. The other choices (A, B, D) are essential components of TPN solutions necessary for meeting the nutritional needs of the patient.
Question 9 of 9
The client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken daily for the relief of generalized discomfort. Which laboratory value would indicate toxicity associated with the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dl. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver damage, causing an increase in bilirubin levels. Direct bilirubin specifically indicates liver function. A: Sodium level is not related to acetaminophen toxicity. C: Prothrombin time is a measure of blood clotting, not indicative of acetaminophen toxicity. D: Platelet count is not affected by acetaminophen toxicity.