ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An adult is being taught about a healthy diet. How can the food pyramid help guide the client on his diet?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the food pyramid suggests daily food choices based on the different food groups. It provides a visual guide on the proportions of each food group to consume for a balanced diet. It does not specify the exact number of servings (A), calculate calories (B), or divide food into four basic groups (D). The food pyramid is a tool to help individuals make healthier food choices by emphasizing variety and moderation.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because respiratory rate is an observable and measurable data point, making it objective. Objective data is factual and observable, such as vital signs. Choices A, B, and D are subjective data as they rely on the patient's perception or interpretation, which can be influenced by various factors and may not always be accurate or reliable. In this case, the nurse can directly measure and document the patient's respiratory rate, making it an objective piece of information.
Question 3 of 9
If Mr. Franco’s Right side is weak, What should be the most accurate analysis by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because right-sided weakness is typically associated with damage or impairment in the left lobe of the brain. The brain controls the opposite side of the body, so weakness on the right side indicates left brain involvement. This is known as contralateral control. The other choices are incorrect because expressive aphasia is associated with left brain damage, problems in judging distance and proprioception are related to parietal lobe damage, and orientation to time and space is more related to frontal lobe damage. Therefore, the most accurate analysis by the nurse would be to consider the affected lobe as the right lobe in this case.
Question 4 of 9
Which information indicates a nurse has a good understanding of a goal? It is a statement describing the patient’s accomplishments without a time
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: A goal should be measurable to track progress effectively. Step 2: The statement "a measurable change in a patient's physical state" indicates a specific and quantifiable outcome. Step 3: This aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting - Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound. Step 4: Other choices lack the specificity and measurability required for a clear goal. Step 5: Choice A talks about restriction, which is not directly related to understanding a goal. Step 6: Choice B focuses on negative responses, which is not necessarily indicative of understanding the goal. Step 7: Choice C is vague and lacks the specificity of a measurable outcome.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse who is caring for an unresponsive client formulates the nursing diagnosis, 'Risk for Aspiration related to reduced level of consciousness.' The nurse documents this nursing diagnosis as correct based on the understanding that which of the following is a characteristic of this type of diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a nursing diagnosis typically consists of two parts: the problem (Risk for Aspiration) and the related factor (reduced level of consciousness). This format helps clearly identify the client's health issue and its cause. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to a nursing diagnosis focusing on the client's response. Choice C is incorrect as it describes an outcome, not a diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect as a nursing diagnosis should be based on evidence, not made without support. Therefore, the correct choice is A due to the structure and clarity it provides in identifying the client's risk.
Question 6 of 9
The standing orders for a patient include acetaminophen 650 mg every 4 hours prn for headache. After assessing the patient, the nurse identifies the need for headache relief and determines that the patient has not had acetaminophen in the past 4 hours. Which action will the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the acetaminophen. The rationale is as follows: 1. The patient has a standing order for acetaminjson for headache relief. 2. The nurse has assessed that the patient needs headache relief and has not had the medication in the past 4 hours. 3. Administering the acetaminophen aligns with the prescribed treatment plan and the patient's needs. Summary: - Option B is incorrect because obtaining a verbal order is not necessary when there is a standing order. - Option C is incorrect as nursing assistive personnel should not administer medications without direct supervision. - Option D is incorrect as pain assessment should precede medication administration to ensure appropriateness.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is hospitalized following a stroke. Three days after admission, the patient is able to converse clearly with the nurse during the morning assessment. Early in the afternoon, the patient’s daughter runs out of the room and says, “My mother can’t talk. Somebody help!” Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should do a quick assessment to confirm the change in the patient's status, then notify the RN or physician. This is the best response because the nurse needs to immediately assess the patient's condition to ensure prompt intervention if needed. By confirming the change in the patient's status, the nurse can provide the necessary information to the healthcare team for appropriate evaluation and management. The other choices are incorrect because: A does not address the urgency of the situation, C involves unnecessary delay by waiting for the speech therapist, and D is not appropriate as the nurse should be the one assessing and notifying the healthcare team.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chronic ache or pain. Persistent cough and chronic ache or pain are both common warning signs of cancer. Chronic pain can be a symptom of various types of cancer, signaling the presence of a tumor or cancerous growth. It is important for the client to seek medical evaluation to rule out any underlying serious condition. A: Persistent nausea is not typically considered a common warning sign of cancer. While it can be a symptom in certain types of cancer or due to treatment side effects, it is not as prominent as chronic ache or pain. B: Indigestion is a common symptom that can be caused by various non-cancer-related issues such as dietary habits, stress, or gastrointestinal disorders. It is not typically considered a direct warning sign of cancer. C: Rash is generally not a common warning sign of cancer. Rashes are more commonly associated with skin conditions, allergic reactions, or infections rather than being an indicator of cancer.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is working in a support group for client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because following safer-sex practices is crucial in preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS. By emphasizing this point, the nurse can educate clients on reducing the risk of transmission. Safer-sex practices include using condoms and practicing monogamy. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding recreational drugs and alcohol, while important for overall health, is not directly related to preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for individuals to inform their sexual partners about their HIV status to prevent transmission and ensure informed consent. Choice D is incorrect because while it may be required by law in some places, it is not the most crucial point for preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS within a support group setting.