ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An adult is being taught about a healthy diet. How can the food pyramid help guide the client on his diet?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the food pyramid suggests daily food choices based on the different food groups. It provides a visual guide on the proportions of each food group to consume for a balanced diet. It does not specify the exact number of servings (A), calculate calories (B), or divide food into four basic groups (D). The food pyramid is a tool to help individuals make healthier food choices by emphasizing variety and moderation.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse caring for an adult client. The nurse will need to monitor for which of the following metabolic complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, hyperglycemia and hypokalemia. Hyperglycemia can occur in adult clients due to various factors such as diabetes or stress. Hypokalemia can be a consequence of hyperglycemia or other conditions leading to potassium loss. Monitoring for these metabolic complications is essential to ensure the client's well-being. Other choices are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypercalcemia (choice A) are less likely to occur concurrently in adult clients. Hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia (choice B) are less common as hyperkalemia is usually associated with renal dysfunction. Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia (choice D) are less likely to be monitored together as they are not commonly seen in the same clinical context.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is hospitalized following a stroke. Three days after admission, the patient is able to converse clearly with the nurse during the morning assessment. Early in the afternoon, the patient’s daughter runs out of the room and says, “My mother can’t talk. Somebody help!” Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should do a quick assessment to confirm the change in the patient's status, then notify the RN or physician. This is the best response because the nurse needs to immediately assess the patient's condition to ensure prompt intervention if needed. By confirming the change in the patient's status, the nurse can provide the necessary information to the healthcare team for appropriate evaluation and management. The other choices are incorrect because: A does not address the urgency of the situation, C involves unnecessary delay by waiting for the speech therapist, and D is not appropriate as the nurse should be the one assessing and notifying the healthcare team.
Question 4 of 9
Nurses identifying outcomes and related nursing interventions must refer to the standards and agency policies for setting priorities, identifying and recording expected client outcomes, selecting evidence-based nursing interventions, and recording the plan of care. Which of the following are recognized standards?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (State Nurse Practice Acts) Rationale: State Nurse Practice Acts outline the legal scope of nursing practice, including standards for setting priorities, identifying client outcomes, and selecting evidence-based nursing interventions. These laws are specific to nursing practice, ensuring that nurses follow guidelines tailored to their profession. Nurses must adhere to these standards to provide safe and effective care. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Professional physicians' organizations - While physicians' organizations may provide guidelines for medical practice, they do not set standards specific to nursing practice. C: The Joint Commission - The Joint Commission focuses on accreditation for healthcare organizations, not setting standards for nursing practice. D: The Agency for Health Care Research and Quality - AHRQ conducts research and provides evidence-based information but does not establish standards for nursing practice.
Question 5 of 9
A client has undergone the Snellen eye chart test and has 20/40 vision. Which of the ff is true for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the Snellen eye chart test, the first number (20) represents the distance at which the client is viewing the chart, and the second number (40) represents the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. Therefore, a client with 20/40 vision sees letters at 20 feet that others with normal vision can read at 40 feet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the interpretation of the 20/40 vision result from the Snellen eye chart test. B is incorrect because the client does not see letters at 40 feet that others can read at 20 feet. Choices C and D are incorrect because the Snellen eye chart test measures visual acuity, not color perception.
Question 6 of 9
A client is undergoing test for multiple myeloma. Diagnostic study findings in multiple Myeloma includes:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bence jones protein in the urine. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells produce excess monoclonal immunoglobulins, including Bence Jones proteins, which can be detected in the urine. This is a hallmark finding in multiple myeloma diagnosis. A: Incorrect. Serum creatinine levels are typically not affected in multiple myeloma. C: Incorrect. Hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, is commonly seen in multiple myeloma due to bone destruction. D: Incorrect. Multiple myeloma often presents with high serum protein levels, not low levels.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff is a nursing intervention to ensure that the client is free from injury caused by falls?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because monitoring for swelling and heaviness of legs is essential in preventing falls, which can be caused by conditions like edema or circulatory issues. Swollen or heavy legs can affect mobility and balance, increasing the risk of falls. This intervention helps identify potential issues early and implement preventive measures. Choice A is incorrect as monitoring for chest pain and LDL levels pertains more to cardiovascular health than fall prevention. Choice C is incorrect because monitoring postural changes in BP is important for managing hypertension, not necessarily for preventing falls. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring temperature for mild fever is more related to identifying infections rather than preventing falls.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff factors predisposes a client to the development of TB?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Malnutrition. Malnutrition weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to contracting tuberculosis. A well-nourished individual has a stronger immune response to fight off TB bacteria. Exposure to toxic gases (A), congenital abnormalities (B), and obstruction by tumor (C) do not directly predispose a client to TB. Malnutrition is the key factor as it impairs the immune system's ability to combat the TB bacteria effectively.
Question 9 of 9
The client is suspected of having myasthenia gravis. Edrophonium (Tensilon) 2 mg is administered intravenously to determine the diagnosis. Which of the following indicates that the client has myasthenia gravis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, the administration of edrophonium will temporarily improve muscle strength due to increased availability of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This improvement should be noted within 30 to 60 seconds after the administration of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because joint pain is not a typical response to edrophonium in the context of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect because feelings of faintness, dizziness, hypotension, and flushing are more indicative of a cholinergic crisis, which occurs when too much edrophonium is administered. Choice D is incorrect because an increase in muscle strength post-edrophonium administration would not be expected in a client with myasthenia gravis.