ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An adult has a central venous line. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture are crucial in caring for a patient with a central venous line to prevent serious complications. Infections can lead to sepsis, air embolus can cause respiratory distress, and leakage/puncture can result in hemorrhage or damage to surrounding tissues. A: While a complete blood count and electrolytes may be important for monitoring the patient's overall health, they are not specific to the central venous line care. B: Regular chest x-rays are not necessary unless there are specific indications of line malposition or complications. C: Continuous infusion at a keep-vein-open rate is a standard practice but does not address the critical aspects of central line care mentioned in option D. Therefore, monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture is the most essential component of the plan of care for a patient with a central venous line.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse knows that a client understands a low residue diet when he selects which of the following from the menu?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rice and lean chicken. A low residue diet aims to reduce fiber intake to ease digestion. Rice and lean chicken are low in fiber and easy to digest. Pasta with vegetables (B) contains high-fiber vegetables. Strawberry pie (C) is high in fiber due to fruit and crust. Tuna casserole (D) may contain high-fiber ingredients like noodles and vegetables. Therefore, A is the best choice for a low residue diet.
Question 3 of 9
A client with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse reaction immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vision changes. This is crucial to report immediately because tamoxifen can cause serious eye problems such as retinopathy. Vision changes could indicate a potentially serious adverse reaction that requires prompt medical attention to prevent permanent damage. Headache, hearing loss, and anorexia are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are less urgent in nature. Reporting vision changes promptly can help prevent irreversible harm and ensure timely intervention.
Question 4 of 9
24 hours after undergoing kidney transplantation, a client develops a hyperacute rejection. To correct this problem, the nurse should prepare the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Removal of the transplanted kidney. Hyperacute rejection is a severe and immediate immune response to the transplanted organ. In this case, the transplanted kidney must be removed promptly to prevent further complications, as it is irreversibly damaged. High-dose IV cyclosporine (B) is used for immunosuppression but is not effective in treating hyperacute rejection. Bone marrow transplant (C) is not indicated for kidney rejection. Intra-abdominal instillation of methylprednisolone sodium succinate (D) is used for acute rejection, not hyperacute rejection.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff is an assessment finding in a client with bonchiectasis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In bronchiectasis, worsening cough with position changes is an assessment finding due to increased sputum production and airway obstruction. This occurs because of the pooling of secretions in the affected bronchi. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in bronchiectasis, there is typically increased sputum production over time, productive cough with expectoration of large amounts of sputum, and cough that worsens with activity or physical exertion, rather than with position changes.
Question 6 of 9
Alex is taking carbamazepine (tegretol) for seizure disorder. He should be monitored for which of the following potential complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: leukocytosis. Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to leukocytosis. Monitoring for elevated white blood cell count is essential to detect this potential complication early. A: Adult respiratory distress syndrome is not a common complication of carbamazepine. B: Elevated levels of phenytoin is not a direct complication of carbamazepine use. C: Diplopia is a common side effect of carbamazepine, not a potential complication like leukocytosis.
Question 7 of 9
Blood cells are formed in the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone marrow. Blood cells are primarily formed in the bone marrow through a process called hematopoiesis. The bone marrow contains stem cells that differentiate into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Arterioles are small blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart, not involved in blood cell formation. Lymphoid tissue plays a role in immune function but not in blood cell production. Muscle tissue is primarily responsible for movement and does not have a role in blood cell formation. Therefore, the bone marrow is the correct answer as it is the main site of blood cell production in the body.
Question 8 of 9
A client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis site for cancer cells?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver. Cancer cells commonly metastasize to the liver due to its rich blood supply, making it an ideal environment for tumor growth. Liver metastasis can occur from various primary cancer sites. The liver filters blood and is susceptible to receiving cancer cells circulating in the bloodstream. Metastasis to the colon (B) is less common as it is typically the primary site for colon cancer. Metastasis to the reproductive tract (C) can occur but is not as common as liver metastasis. White blood cells (D) are a part of the immune system and do not serve as a common site for cancer metastasis.
Question 9 of 9
A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the metabolic unit. The primary goal for this admission is education. Which of the following goals should the nurse incorporate into her teaching plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as exercise and a weight reduction diet are essential components in managing type 2 diabetes. Exercise helps lower blood glucose levels and improves insulin sensitivity. Weight reduction reduces insulin resistance. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining blood glucose levels between 180-200mg/dl is too high and can lead to complications. Choice B is incorrect as complete smoking cessation is crucial for overall health and diabetes management. Choice C is incorrect because eye examinations should be done annually, not every 2 years, to monitor for diabetic retinopathy. In summary, choice D is the best option as it directly addresses the management of type 2 diabetes.