ATI RN
46 Free Patient Care Technician Practice Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
An adult asthma patient is experiencing laryngospasm and ineffective respirations, making orotracheal intubation impossible. So, you quickly decide to perform nasotracheal intubation. Which of the following tubes would be most appropriate for the procedure for an average height and weight adult?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cuffed 7-8 mm endotracheal tube. This size provides a balance between being large enough to secure the airway and small enough to pass through the nasal passage comfortably. The cuff helps to prevent air leakage and aspiration. A cuffed tube is essential for positive pressure ventilation and preventing gastric insufflation. Choices A and C are too narrow for an adult, risking airway obstruction and difficulty with ventilation. Choice B, an uncuffed tube, may not provide a secure airway and could lead to air leakage and aspiration.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following medications is used to prevent blood clot formation in patients with a-fib or pulmonary embolism, and decrease the risk of MI in patients with atherosclerosis as well as reduce the risk of stroke?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C: Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker used to prevent blood clot formation in a-fib/pulmonary embolism, decrease MI risk in atherosclerosis, and reduce stroke risk by lowering blood pressure and improving cardiovascular outcomes. Incorrect choices: A: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used for angina but does not prevent blood clot formation or reduce stroke risk. B: Lotensin is an ACE inhibitor for hypertension, not specifically for preventing blood clots or reducing stroke risk. D: Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots, not prevent their formation.
Question 3 of 5
You are on-scene with a patient suspected of taking a large amount of meperidine hydrochloride. Which of the following interventions may be effective in reversing the adverse effects of the ingested medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Naloxone. Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose by competitively binding to opioid receptors. Administering naloxone can quickly reverse the adverse effects of meperidine overdose and restore normal respiratory function in the patient. Activated charcoal (A) is used to absorb toxins in the gastrointestinal tract but is not effective in reversing the effects of opioids. Atropine (B) is an anticholinergic drug used to treat bradycardia and not effective in reversing opioid overdose. Romazicon (C) is a benzodiazepine antagonist and not effective in reversing opioid overdose. In summary, naloxone is the correct intervention for reversing the adverse effects of meperidine hydrochloride overdose due to its opioid antagonist properties, while the other choices are not effective in this specific scenario
Question 4 of 5
An unresponsive adult trauma patient exhibits pale, cold, and clammy skin that appears ashen/cyanotic. He is breathing less than eight times a minute, has a heart rate of 32 beats a minute, and shows an irregular bradyarrhythmia on the monitor in lead II. He is experiencing frank hypotension that is barely palpable. Which of the following stages of shock is most likely causing his presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncompensated shock. This patient is exhibiting severe signs of shock, including hypotension, bradycardia, altered skin characteristics, and inadequate breathing. Uncompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to a rapid decline in perfusion and organ function. In this case, the patient's vital signs indicate a critical state where the body is unable to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. Other choices are incorrect because irreversible shock occurs when vital organs have sustained significant damage, reversible shock indicates early recognition and intervention, and compensated shock denotes the body's ability to maintain perfusion despite initial insult.
Question 5 of 5
A 23-year-old man is shot in the lower abdomen. The most appropriate management is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In a trauma scenario like a gunshot wound to the lower abdomen, the priority is to transfer the patient to the operating room for surgical exploration and intervention. This is because penetrating abdominal injuries often require urgent surgical exploration to identify and control bleeding, repair organ damage, and prevent complications like peritonitis. Initiating fluid therapy is crucial to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status. Performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage (choice A) is outdated and has been replaced by more advanced imaging techniques. Infusing packed red blood cells (choice B) can be done after stabilizing the patient in the operating room. Inserting a nasogastric tube and urinary catheter (choice C) is not the immediate priority in this critical situation.