An adult asthma patient is experiencing laryngospasm and ineffective respirations, making orotracheal intubation impossible. So, you quickly decide to perform nasotracheal intubation. Which of the following tubes would be most appropriate for the procedure for an average height and weight adult?

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Question 1 of 5

An adult asthma patient is experiencing laryngospasm and ineffective respirations, making orotracheal intubation impossible. So, you quickly decide to perform nasotracheal intubation. Which of the following tubes would be most appropriate for the procedure for an average height and weight adult?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cuffed 7-8 mm endotracheal tube. Rationale: 1. Cuffed tubes provide a better seal in the trachea, reducing the risk of aspiration and air leak. 2. A larger diameter tube (7-8 mm) is more appropriate for an average adult, ensuring adequate airflow. 3. Nasotracheal intubation requires a tube with a cuff to prevent nasal secretions from entering the lungs. Summary: A: A cuffed tube is needed for nasotracheal intubation to prevent complications. The diameter is too small for an adult. B: An uncuffed tube may not provide a secure seal in the trachea, increasing the risk of aspiration. C: An uncuffed tube is not suitable for nasotracheal intubation in an adult due to the risk of air leak and aspiration.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following medications is used to prevent blood clot formation in patients with a-fib or pulmonary embolism, and decrease the risk of MI in patients with atherosclerosis as well as reduce the risk of stroke?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Losartan is the correct answer as it is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that helps prevent blood clot formation by reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion. It is commonly used in patients with a-fib, pulmonary embolism, atherosclerosis, and stroke prevention. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Nitroglycerin is used to treat angina by dilating blood vessels, not preventing blood clot formation. B: Lotensin is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension, not for preventing blood clots. D: Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots, not prevent their formation.

Question 3 of 5

You are on-scene with a patient suspected of taking a large amount of meperidine hydrochloride. Which of the following interventions may be effective in reversing the adverse effects of the ingested medication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Naloxone. Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids like meperidine by blocking opioid receptors. By administering naloxone, it can potentially reverse respiratory depression, sedation, and other adverse effects caused by the opioid overdose. Activated charcoal (choice A) is used to absorb toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, which is not effective for opioids. Atropine (choice B) is used for treating bradycardia and not specific to opioid overdose. Romazicon (choice C) is a benzodiazepine antagonist and not effective for opioid overdose.

Question 4 of 5

An unresponsive adult trauma patient exhibits pale, cold, and clammy skin that appears ashen/cyanotic. He is breathing less than eight times a minute, has a heart rate of 32 beats a minute, and shows an irregular bradyarrhythmia on the monitor in lead II. He is experiencing frank hypotension that is barely palpable. Which of the following stages of shock is most likely causing his presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncompensated shock. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with severe signs of shock, including hypotension, bradycardia, bradyarrhythmia, and inadequate breathing. Uncompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to decreased tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. The patient's pale, cold, clammy skin and cyanosis indicate poor perfusion. The low heart rate and irregular rhythm suggest the heart is struggling to maintain cardiac output. The inadequate respiratory rate further impairs oxygenation. These findings collectively indicate that the patient is in a state of decompensation, unable to adequately compensate for the decreased perfusion. Irreversible shock (A) would involve complete organ failure and a fatal outcome. Reversible shock (C) implies that interventions could restore normal perfusion, which is not the case here. Compensated shock (D) would involve more effective compensatory mechanisms to maintain perf

Question 5 of 5

A 23-year-old man is shot in the lower abdomen. The most appropriate management is to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In a gunshot wound to the lower abdomen, there is a high risk of intra-abdominal injuries requiring surgical intervention. Initiating fluid therapy helps stabilize the patient's hemodynamics. Transfer to the operating room is crucial for exploration and management of any internal injuries. Performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage (choice A) may delay definitive management. Infusion of packed red blood cells (choice B) should be done after initial stabilization. Inserting a nasogastric tube and urinary catheter (choice C) are not the priority in this acute trauma situation.

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