ATI RN
Psychobiologic Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
An adolescent diagnosed with a CD stole and wrecked a neighbor's motorcycle. Afterward, the adolescent was confronted about the behavior but expressed no remorse. Which variation in the central nervous system best explains the adolescent's reaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala can lead to decreased feelings of empathy. 1. The cortex is responsible for higher-order cognitive functions, including empathy. 2. The amygdala plays a crucial role in processing emotions, such as empathy and remorse. 3. Reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala can result in deficits in recognizing and processing emotions like empathy and remorse. Therefore, the adolescent's lack of remorse could be attributed to these neurological abnormalities. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Serotonin dysregulation and increased testosterone activity primarily affect mood regulation and aggression, not necessarily remorse. B: Neuron destruction in the hippocampus affects memory and learning, not empathy or remorse. D: Disturbances in the occipital lobe primarily impact vision and visual processing, not empathy or remorse.
Question 2 of 5
In which location of the cardiovascular system is the highest concentration of baroreceptors?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The aorta and carotid arteries. Baroreceptors are sensors that detect changes in blood pressure. The highest concentration of baroreceptors is found in the aorta and carotid arteries because these are major arteries close to the heart and brain, which are crucial for maintaining blood pressure regulation. The aorta and carotid arteries constantly monitor blood pressure and send signals to the brain to help regulate it. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the carotid veins, supraclavicular arteries, and femoral arteries do not contain as high a concentration of baroreceptors as the aorta and carotid arteries, which play a significant role in blood pressure regulation.
Question 3 of 5
A 67-year-old female smoker with a family history of high blood pressure and heart disease presents with acute onset neck pain, headache, and a blood pressure of 175/100 mm Hg. What should the physical therapist do FIRST?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Refer the patient for assessment by a physician. Given the patient's age, smoking history, family history, and elevated blood pressure, there is a high likelihood of cardiovascular issues. As a physical therapist, it is crucial to prioritize patient safety and rule out any serious medical conditions before proceeding with any interventions. Referring the patient for immediate medical assessment allows for proper diagnosis and management of potential cardiovascular emergencies. This is the first and most important step to ensure the patient's well-being. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Assuming it is a 'white coat' effect overlooks the serious symptoms and risks associated with the patient's presentation. C: Continuing the examination with modifications may delay necessary medical intervention and put the patient at risk. D: Modifying the examination and avoiding manual therapy may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms and delay appropriate medical care.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Orders from the physician include 100 mg chlorpromazine IM STAT and then 50 mg PO bid; 2 mg benztropine PO bid prn. Why is chlorpromazine ordered?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - To decrease psychotic symptoms Rationale: 1. Chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic used to manage psychotic symptoms in schizophrenia. 2. It acts by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, helping to alleviate hallucinations and delusions. 3. The IM STAT dose provides rapid relief, followed by the oral dose for maintenance. 4. Benztropine is an anticholinergic used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, not chlorpromazine. 5. Chlorpromazine does not prevent neuroleptic malignant syndrome or induce sleep. Summary: A: Incorrect - Chlorpromazine does not primarily reduce extrapyramidal symptoms. B: Incorrect - Chlorpromazine does not prevent neuroleptic malignant syndrome. D: Incorrect - Chlorpromazine is not primarily used to induce sleep.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is interviewing a client on the psychiatric unit. The client tilts his head to the side, stops talking in midsentence, and listens intently. The nurse recognizes from these signs that the client is likely experiencing:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory hallucinations. When a client tilts their head to the side, stops talking, and listens intently, it suggests that they are hearing something that others cannot, indicating auditory hallucinations. This behavior aligns with the sensory experience of hearing voices. Somatic delusions (A) involve false beliefs about one's body, not auditory experiences. Catatonic stupor (B) is characterized by immobility and unresponsiveness, not specific behavioral cues like tilting the head. Pseudoparkinsonism (D) refers to drug-induced symptoms resembling Parkinson's disease, not related to the client's behavior during the interview.