An adolescent client will receive Depo-Provera as a method of birth control. She asks the nurse how long the drug will be effective. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Depo-Provera, a progestin injection, provides contraception by inhibiting ovulation for 3 months , requiring re-administration every 12 weeks. This duration is based on its pharmacokinetic profile, ensuring reliable hormone levels. Two months underestimates, risking unprotected gaps. Six months or 1 year overestimate, reducing efficacy mid-cycle. The nurse's accurate response (D) educates the client on timing, ensuring adherence and preventing unintended pregnancy, aligning with clinical standards for injectable contraceptives.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A common side effect of Heparin, which is an anticoagulant medication, is the risk of bleeding. Heparin works by preventing the formation of blood clots, which can lead to a bleeding risk as it inhibits the normal clotting process. Patients taking Heparin should be monitored closely for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, or blood in the urine or stools. It is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients on Heparin therapy and adjust the dosage as needed to minimize the risk of excessive bleeding.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sporotrichosis, from Sporothrix schenckii, requires antifungals like itraconazole. Option , inhibiting lanosterol to ergosterol conversion, is correct-itraconazole blocks 14-α-demethylase, disrupting fungal membrane synthesis. Option , pore formation, is amphotericin B's mechanism. Option , microtubule disruption, is griseofulvin's. Option , squalene monooxygenase inhibition, is terbinafine's. Option (E), 5-FU conversion, is flucytosine's. Itraconazole's ergosterol inhibition effectively treats this subcutaneous infection, targeting fungal viability.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic agent, which means it works by inhibiting the breakdown of blood clots. It does this by blocking the activation of plasmin, which is responsible for breaking down fibrin clots. This action helps in promoting clot stability and reducing bleeding. Tranexamic acid is commonly used to treat or prevent excessive bleeding in various conditions, such as heavy menstrual bleeding, surgery, trauma, and certain medical procedures.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is not an opioid or NSAID. It is a pain reliever and fever reducer, but it works in a different way compared to opioids and NSAIDs. Unlike opioids, acetaminophen does not have the same risk of physical dependence or addiction. And unlike NSAIDs, acetaminophen does not have anti-inflammatory properties. It is often used for mild to moderate pain relief and as a fever reducer. Be cautious when taking acetaminophen, as high doses can be harmful to the liver.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the emergency management of a patient with extremely high blood pressure, intravenous (IV) administration of nitroglycerin is the most appropriate form of delivery. IV infusion provides rapid and precise control of blood pressure by allowing the medication to take effect quickly and be titrated to the desired blood pressure level. This route of administration is crucial in acute settings like the emergency department, where immediate blood pressure management is needed. Other forms of nitroglycerin, such as sublingual spray, transdermal patch, or oral capsule, may not provide the rapid onset of action required in this critical situation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: HRT increases clotting risk, making calf pain a priority due to potential DVT, a life-threatening side effect. Libido , back pain , and fatigue are less urgent. A ensures safety, aligning with HRT risks, making it the priority.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) ties depression to winter-less light, per psychiatry-unlike baby blues (postpartum), bipolar (cycles), or OCD (obsessions). SAD's seasonal link defines it, matching symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant, increasing the risk of infections. Strict hand washing and infection prevention measures are crucial. Clay-colored stools are not normal and may indicate liver dysfunction. Pregnancy is contraindicated due to the risk of fetal harm. Sunlight exposure should be limited to reduce the risk of photosensitivity reactions.