ATI RN
Age Specific Populations Questions
Question 1 of 5
An adolescent claims to have been physically abused by a parent. The adolescent's other parent angrily tells the nurse, 'It's ridiculous for our child to accuse my spouse, who's a prominent doctor and is respected by the community.' Which of these nursing communications would be most effective for the parent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. This response challenges the parent's belief that abuse does not exist in respected families, highlighting the misconception that abuse can happen in any family. 2. It addresses the parent's disbelief directly, encouraging them to reconsider their assumptions and beliefs about abuse. 3. It promotes critical thinking and reflection on the parent's part, fostering a more open-minded and empathetic approach towards the adolescent's disclosure. Summary of Other Choices: B: This choice focuses on the stress of the accused parent, deflecting from the issue of abuse and potentially excusing their behavior. C: This choice acknowledges the difficulty of the situation but does not effectively challenge the parent's disbelief or misconceptions about abuse. D: This choice uses a positive characteristic of the accused parent to deflect from the allegations of abuse, which does not address the parent's denial or the seriousness of the situation.
Question 2 of 5
During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin (SHT2) excess will suggest that the client receive:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is an atypical antipsychotic that targets multiple neurotransmitter systems, including serotonin. Serotonin excess is associated with symptoms like apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. Olanzapine, by blocking serotonin receptors, can help alleviate these symptoms in schizophrenia. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Haloperidol and B: Chlorpromazine are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, not serotonin. They are more effective for positive symptoms of schizophrenia, not apathy and avolition. D: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for depression and anxiety disorders, not for schizophrenia symptoms related to serotonin excess.
Question 3 of 5
When a patient with paranoid schizophrenia has a recurrence of positive symptoms after stopping his antipsychotic medication because of its postural hypotension (orthostasis) side effect, he is readmitted to the mental health unit. What measure should the nurse suggest to help the patient address this side effect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect of antipsychotic medications. Elastic support hose can help improve venous return, adequate fluids can prevent dehydration which worsens hypotension, and changing position slowly can prevent sudden drops in blood pressure. This measure directly addresses the side effect. A: Anticholinergic drugs can worsen orthostatic hypotension. B: Chewing gum or using candy does not address the physiological issue of orthostatic hypotension. C: Increasing sleep and rest breaks may help overall well-being but does not directly address orthostatic hypotension.
Question 4 of 5
The physician and advanced practice nurse are considering which antipsychotic medication to prescribe for a patient with schizophrenia who demonstrates auditory hallucinations, apathy, anhedonia, and poor social functioning. The patient is overweight and has hypertension. Bearing these facts in mind, the drug the nurse should advocate would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: aripiprazole (Ability). Aripiprazole is a second-generation antipsychotic that is less likely to cause weight gain and metabolic side effects compared to other antipsychotics like clozapine (A), olanzapine (C), and haloperidol (B). Given that the patient is overweight and has hypertension, aripiprazole would be a better choice to minimize the risk of exacerbating these conditions. Additionally, aripiprazole has a lower risk of sedation, which can be beneficial for a patient with apathy and anhedonia, allowing for improved social functioning. Aripiprazole's unique mechanism of action as a partial dopamine agonist can also be advantageous for managing auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia. Therefore, aripiprazole is the most suitable choice for this patient based on their clinical presentation and comorbidities.
Question 5 of 5
The plan of care for a patient who has demonstrated outbursts of physical violence against his family when frustrated, followed by periods of remorse after each outburst, would be considered successful when the patient:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because expressing frustration verbally instead of physically shows progress in managing emotions constructively. This approach helps prevent harm and promotes effective communication. Choice B doesn't address immediate behavior change. Choice C focuses on explaining behavior rather than changing it. Choice D is more about self-awareness and coping strategies, which is important but doesn't directly address the violent behavior.