ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
An 86-year-old man with no ADL deficits who has stopped driving because of macular degeneration is evaluated for a urinary tract infection associated with urinary retention. The consulting urologist places a Foley catheter and sends a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level that comes back 12 ng/mL. Three months later after the Foley has been removed and he has had a good response to tamsulosin, his PSA is still 10 ng/mL. What is the appropriate next step in managing this man’s prostate problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Repeat PSA in 6 months. In this case, the patient's PSA levels have decreased from 12 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL after treatment with tamsulosin and removal of the Foley catheter. Given the improvement in PSA levels, it is reasonable to monitor for further changes before considering invasive procedures like transrectal ultrasound and biopsy (choice A), which may not be necessary at this time. Empiric finasteride (choice B) is not indicated as the patient is already responding well to tamsulosin. A bone scan (choice C) is not necessary at this stage as there are no indications of metastasis. Therefore, repeating the PSA in 6 months allows for continued monitoring of the patient's prostate health without subjecting him to unnecessary procedures.
Question 2 of 5
Mr. Roberts, a 72-year-old patient who has sought medical care on an intermittent basis in the past, complains of aching discomfort in his perineal area, urinary urgency, and frequency for the past few years. He also complains of insomnia and intermittent anxiety that he attributes to loneliness after his wife’s death about a year ago. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a slightly enlarged, nontender prostate with no palpable nodules. Perineal examination is normal. Bladder scan is unremarkable and postvoid residual urine volume is 50 mL. Urinalysis shows no WBCs or RBCs. Urine culture is negative. Previous treatment has included dietary modifications and alpha-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Screen for depression. The patient's symptoms of insomnia, anxiety, and loneliness after his wife's death suggest he may be experiencing depression, which can manifest as physical symptoms like urinary urgency and frequency. Since the patient has already received appropriate treatment for his urinary symptoms, addressing his mental health is the next crucial step. This can help improve his overall well-being and quality of life. Starting an antibiotic course (choice A) is not indicated as there are no signs of infection. Initiating a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (choice B) is not necessary given the absence of specific indications such as obstructive voiding symptoms. Urodynamic testing (choice C) is not warranted at this stage as the patient's history and findings do not suggest underlying bladder dysfunction.
Question 3 of 5
Guidelines for the primary prevention of stroke recommend that aspirin be used in which one of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because guidelines for primary stroke prevention recommend using aspirin in individuals whose risk of stroke is high enough for the benefits to outweigh the risks. This is based on assessing individual risk factors such as age, hypertension, diabetes, smoking, and history of cardiovascular diseases to determine if the potential benefits of aspirin therapy in reducing the risk of stroke outweigh the potential risks such as gastrointestinal bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin should not be used regardless of risk level, based on gender, or in specific populations without considering individual risk factors to ensure the benefits outweigh the risks.
Question 4 of 5
A 78-year-old man with multi-infarct dementia, chronic kidney disease, congestive heart failure, and uncontrolled hypertension develops confusion, restlessness, and combativeness. Which of the pharmacologic agents would be the best choice for treating the agitation associated with his delirium?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-line antipsychotic commonly used to manage agitation in delirium due to its rapid onset and minimal sedative effects. It acts by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps to reduce agitation and combativeness. Melatonin (A) is not effective for acute agitation. Diazepam (C) can worsen confusion in elderly patients and is not recommended for delirium. Gabapentin (D) is not indicated for managing agitation in delirium and may not be effective in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is not a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in older adults?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are not known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more commonly associated with antipsychotic medications. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, irritation, and hyponatremia in older adults due to their effects on serotonin levels and platelet function. Extrapyramidal symptoms involve movement disorders like tremors and muscle rigidity, which are not typically seen with SSRIs. Therefore, A is the correct answer.