ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
An 85-year-old woman with congestive heart failure and frailty asks about hastening her death. Which of the following is legal throughout the United States?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Voluntary stopping of eating and drinking. This is legal throughout the United States because it is considered a patient's right to refuse food and water, even if it may lead to death. This decision is based on the principle of patient autonomy and respects the patient's wishes. Euthanasia (A) involves actively causing death, which is illegal in the United States. Palliative sedation (B) is providing medication to relieve suffering, but not with the intention of hastening death. Physician-assisted death (D) involves a physician providing medication for a patient to self-administer to end their life, which is not legal in all states.
Question 2 of 9
Which is the appropriate medication for a 31-year-old pregnant woman diagnosed with a UTI?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Cefuroxime and nitrofurantoin are safe for use in pregnancy and effective against UTIs. 2. Cefuroxime is a cephalosporin antibiotic, considered safe in pregnancy. 3. Nitrofurantoin is a first-line agent for UTIs in pregnancy due to its safety profile. 4. Ciprofloxacin and tetracycline are contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus. 5. Amoxicillin is considered safe in pregnancy but not as effective as nitrofurantoin for UTIs.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with pain in the shoulder. The nurse practitioner knows that there are four rotator cuff muscles. The muscle that initiates abduction movement at the shoulder is known as the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Supraspinatus. This muscle is responsible for initiating abduction movement at the shoulder joint. It is located on the top of the shoulder blade and assists in lifting the arm away from the body. The other choices, B: Infraspinatus, C: Levator scapulae muscle, and D: Subscapularis, are not involved in initiating abduction movement at the shoulder. Infraspinatus is responsible for external rotation, Levator scapulae muscle elevates the scapula, and Subscapularis assists in internal rotation of the shoulder joint.
Question 4 of 9
You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry and rough. In hypothyroidism, there is reduced secretion of sweat and oils, leading to dry skin. The lack of hydration causes the skin to become rough. This correlates with the clinical presentation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss, which are common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Choices A and B are incorrect because moisture is reduced in hypothyroidism, resulting in dry skin. Choice C is incorrect because the lack of oils in hypothyroidism leads to rough skin texture, not smooth.
Question 5 of 9
What intervention does the American College of Rheumatology recommend as first-line therapy for osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or something else?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exercise and weight loss. The American College of Rheumatology recommends this intervention as first-line therapy for osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis due to its proven benefits in reducing pain, improving joint function, and overall quality of life. Exercise helps strengthen muscles around the joints, improve flexibility, and reduce stiffness. Weight loss can also alleviate pressure on the joints, especially in weight-bearing joints. A: Diagnostic workup to rule out rheumatoid arthritis - This is not the first-line therapy but rather a step in the diagnostic process. B: NSAID use at the lowest effective dose - While NSAIDs may help with pain management, they are not recommended as the first-line therapy due to potential side effects. C: Acetaminophen use up to 4 grams/day - Acetaminophen can be used for pain relief, but it is not as effective as exercise and weight loss in managing osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis symptoms
Question 6 of 9
A 79-year-old client is admitted with pneumonia. Which symptom would most likely indicate the need for further evaluation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest pain and pleuritic breathing. This indicates possible complications like pleurisy or pleural effusion, requiring further evaluation. A: Persistent cough with sputum production is common in pneumonia. C: Shortness of breath is a typical symptom of pneumonia. D: Fever and chills are also common in pneumonia. However, chest pain and pleuritic breathing are more indicative of potential complications that may require immediate attention.
Question 7 of 9
Ms. J, who is 82 years old, complains of urine leakage while playing golf. This has gotten worse over the past year, and she rarely makes it through nine holes without feeling like she needs to “run into the bushes and go.” Leakage is usually small volume, but causes her extreme embarrassment because she is afraid she will smell of urine. She has tried limiting caffeine in the morning before she golfs and avoiding drinking water while playing, to no effect. She also tried “those Kegel exercises” in the past without success. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for Ms. J?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Referral for biofeedback training in pelvic muscle exercise. Biofeedback training helps Ms. J improve her pelvic muscle control, which can address her urinary leakage issue. It is specifically tailored to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can help with urinary incontinence. This option is appropriate for Ms. J as she has already tried Kegel exercises without success. Option A: Bladder training focuses on scheduling toilet trips and gradually increasing the time between trips. It may not be as effective for Ms. J's specific issue with leakage during physical activity. Option C: Solifenacin is a medication for overactive bladder symptoms, which may not be the best approach for Ms. J who has stress urinary incontinence. Option D: Topical estrogen is used for menopausal symptoms and genitourinary atrophy, which may not directly address Ms. J's issue with urinary leakage during physical activity.
Question 8 of 9
All of the following about the Medicare Part D prescription medication benefit plan are true except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because beneficiaries do have out-of-pocket expenses for each prescription filled under Medicare Part D. This is typically in the form of copayments or coinsurance. A: Medicare Advantage plans often include Part D coverage, making statement A true. B: There are indeed multiple companies offering Part D plans, so statement B is true. C: The monthly premium for Part D coverage can vary, but in 2019 it was indeed around $30, making statement C true as well.
Question 9 of 9
Symptoms associated with small bowel obstruction usually include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting and pain. Small bowel obstruction typically leads to vomiting due to the blockage preventing food from passing through. Pain occurs as the intestine tries to push against the obstruction. Nausea and diarrhea (choice A) are more common in large bowel obstructions. Hematemesis and bloody stool (choice C) suggest bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract. Indigestion and anorexia (choice D) are not specific to small bowel obstruction. Therefore, the combination of vomiting and pain is indicative of small bowel obstruction.