ATI RN
The Hematologic System ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
An 8-year-old girl presents with National Cancer Institute (NCI) Standard Risk acute pre-B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Her family history is significant for her mother having been diagnosed with breast cancer at age 34 years and a maternal uncle who developed osteosarcoma as a teenager. What cytogenetic abnormality is most likely to be detected in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypodiploidy with a modal chromosome number of 34. In pediatric pre-B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia, hypodiploidy with fewer than 44 chromosomes is associated with a poor prognosis. This cytogenetic abnormality is commonly seen in cases of NCI Standard Risk acute pre-B-cell ALL. A: t(1;19) is typically associated with T-cell ALL, not pre-B-cell ALL. B: CRLF2 rearrangement with a JAK2 mutation is more commonly seen in high-risk B-cell ALL. C: KMT24 rearrangement is not a recognized cytogenetic abnormality in ALL. In summary, the presence of hypodiploidy with a modal chromosome number of 34 is the most likely cytogenetic abnormality in this patient based on her clinical presentation and family history.
Question 2 of 5
A 5-year-old boy is evaluated for apparent ongoing hemolysis. His hemoglobin is 9.5 g/dL, with 8% reticulocytes and MCV 87 fL. Platelets and leukocytes are normal. His direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is negative. No cold agglutinin is detectable. His family history is negative for blood disorders. Peripheral smear reveals basophilic stippling in 10% of the red blood cells. Given these findings, which of the following blood disorders is most likely?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A 19-year-old freshman in college presents with 'lumps' on the right side of his neck and in the right axilla. He had a fever to 39 °C 1 day in the past week. On physical exam, there are firm anterior cervical and axillary nodes, all greater than 2 cm in diameter. A chest x-ray shows a large mediastinal mass. A biopsy of the axillary node reveals classic Hodgkin lymphoma. Which of the following symptoms revealed during the history is a B symptom?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 10% weight loss in the past 6 months. In Hodgkin lymphoma, B symptoms include unexplained weight loss of more than 10% in the past 6 months, fever >38°C, and night sweats. Weight loss is a significant indicator of systemic illness and malignancy. In this case, the patient's weight loss, along with the presence of fever and lymphadenopathy, fulfills the criteria for B symptoms in Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because fever, fatigue, and alcohol-induced pain are not specifically classified as B symptoms in the context of Hodgkin lymphoma. Fever alone does not qualify as a B symptom unless it is associated with other systemic symptoms like weight loss and night sweats. Fatigue can be a nonspecific symptom in many conditions, and alcohol-induced pain is not a recognized B symptom in Hodgkin lymphoma.
Question 4 of 5
A 4-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving high-dose methotrexate during interim maintenance. He receives ondansetron and арrepitant during his stay, which control his nausea and vomiting well. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in which part of the brain?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vomiting center. Ondansetron and aprepitant are antiemetic drugs that work by targeting the vomiting center in the brainstem. The vomiting center coordinates the vomiting reflex in response to various stimuli, including chemotherapy drugs like methotrexate. By inhibiting signaling in the vomiting center, these medications effectively prevent nausea and vomiting. The other choices (A: Vestibular system, B: Cerebral cortex, C: Hypothalamus) are not directly involved in the control of nausea and vomiting in response to chemotherapy.
Question 5 of 5
A 4-year-old boy is pale with intermittent jaundice and splenomegaly. Laboratory results are as follows: RBC 4.85 M/mcL (N); Hgb 8.6 g/dL (L); Hct 25.8% (L); MCV 81.6 (N); MCHC 38% (H); RDW 20% (H); Retic 7% (H). What are the two best tests to distinguish autoimmune hemolytic anemia from hereditary spherocytosis?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: As the correct answer is not provided, I'll provide a step-by-step rationale for each choice: A: Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin and IgG levels are not specific tests for distinguishing between autoimmune hemolytic anemia and hereditary spherocytosis. B: Hemoglobin electrophoresis and direct antiglobulin test (DAT) can help differentiate between these two conditions as autoimmune hemolytic anemia is associated with a positive DAT, while hereditary spherocytosis typically has a negative DAT. C: Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and modified Russell viper venom test are not specific tests for distinguishing between autoimmune hemolytic anemia and hereditary spherocytosis. D: Red cell distribution width (RDW) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) are not typically used to distinguish between autoimmune hemolytic anemia and hereditary spherocytosis. Therefore, the best tests