ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An 18-year-old pregnant female has tested positive for HIV and asks the nurse if her baby is going to be born with HIV. What is the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides an accurate and comprehensive response to the pregnant patient's question about the risk of her baby being born with HIV. Here's the step-by-step rationale: 1. Option D acknowledges the possibility of the baby contracting HIV at different stages: before, during, or after delivery. This covers all potential scenarios and educates the patient about the risks. 2. By mentioning the different possible transmission times, the nurse highlights the importance of proper prenatal care, delivery planning, and postnatal care to minimize the risk of HIV transmission to the baby. 3. This response empowers the patient with knowledge about the potential risks and emphasizes the importance of seeking appropriate medical interventions to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV. 4. In contrast, options A, B, and C provide less informative or inaccurate responses that do not address the patient's concerns adequately, making them incorrect choices. In summary, option D is the best response as it educates the patient about the risks of HIV transmission
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is planning health education for a patient who has experienced a vaginal infection. What guidelines should the nurse include in this program regarding prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid feminine hygiene products, such as sprays. This is because feminine hygiene products can disrupt the natural balance of vaginal flora, leading to an increased risk of vaginal infections. Tight-fitting synthetic underwear (choice A) can trap moisture and promote bacterial growth. Using bubble bath (choice B) can irritate the genital area and disrupt the pH balance. Restricting daily bathing (choice D) is not recommended as regular hygiene practices are important for preventing infections. In summary, choice C is correct as it promotes maintaining the natural vaginal flora and pH balance to prevent infections, while the other choices can contribute to an increased risk of vaginal infections.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with ovarian cancer is admitted to the hospital for surgery and the nurse is completing the patients health history. What clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to assess?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased abdominal girth. In ovarian cancer, a common clinical manifestation is the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, leading to increased abdominal girth. This is known as ascites. The presence of ascites can be observed through physical examination and abdominal imaging. A: Fish-like vaginal odor is not typically associated with ovarian cancer. It may be a symptom of other gynecological conditions. C: Fever and chills are not specific to ovarian cancer and can be seen in various infectious or inflammatory conditions. D: Lower abdominal pelvic pain is a common symptom in many gynecological conditions but is not a specific manifestation of ovarian cancer.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with Bells palsy. The nurses plan of care should address what characteristic manifestation of this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial paralysis. Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden, temporary weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side of the face. This manifests as drooping of the eyelid and corner of the mouth, difficulty smiling or closing the eye. Tinnitus (A) is ringing in the ears, not a common symptom of Bell's palsy. Pain at the base of the tongue (C) is not a typical manifestation of Bell's palsy. Diplopia (D) is double vision, which is not a primary symptom of Bell's palsy. Therefore, the correct manifestation to address in the plan of care for a patient with Bell's palsy is facial paralysis.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with endometriosis. When planning this patients care, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain related to misplaced endometrial tissue. This nursing diagnosis should be prioritized because endometriosis commonly presents with severe pelvic pain. Managing pain is crucial for the patient's comfort and quality of life. Anxiety (choice A) is not the priority as pain management takes precedence. Ineffective tissue perfusion (choice C) is not a priority unless the patient is actively hemorrhaging. Excess fluid volume (choice D) is not typically associated with endometriosis. Prioritizing pain management will address the immediate and most distressing symptom for the patient.
Question 6 of 9
The patient is admitted with facial trauma, including a broken nose, and has a history of esophageal reflux and of aspiration pneumonia. With which tube will the nursemostlikely administer the feeding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jejunostomy tube. This tube is chosen because the patient has a history of aspiration pneumonia, which puts them at risk for aspiration if feeds are administered into the stomach. By administering feeds through a jejunostomy tube, the risk of aspiration pneumonia is minimized as the feed bypasses the stomach. Nasogastric tube (A) and Nasointestinal tube (C) would still deliver feeds to the stomach, increasing the risk of aspiration. PEG tube (D) is also not ideal as it delivers feeds directly to the stomach, which is not recommended for patients at risk for aspiration.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is explaining that each breast contains 12 to 20 cone-shaped lobes. The nurse should explain that each lobe consists of what elements?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lobules and ducts. Each lobe of the breast consists of lobules, which are responsible for milk production, and ducts, which transport the milk to the nipple. This is essential for breastfeeding. Modified tendons and ligaments (choice A) are not present in the lobes of the breast. Connective tissue and smooth muscle (choice B) are important components of the breast but do not specifically make up the lobes. Endocrine glands and sebaceous glands (choice D) are not the primary elements within the lobes of the breast responsible for milk production and transport. The lobules and ducts are vital components for the functioning of the breast in lactation.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a male patient with urinaryretention. Which action should the nurse takefirst?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assist to a standing position. This action helps utilize gravity to aid in emptying the bladder and may help the patient void without the need for invasive measures like catheterization or medications. It is a non-invasive and natural approach to promote urination. Limiting fluid intake (A) could worsen the situation by concentrating urine and worsening retention. Inserting a urinary catheter (B) should be considered only if other measures fail. Asking for a diuretic medication (D) does not address the immediate need for bladder emptying and may not be necessary if the patient can void naturally.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is auditing and monitoring patients’ health records. Which action is the nurse taking?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse is auditing and monitoring patients' health records, indicating a review process. Step 2: By reviewing patients' health records, the nurse is determining the degree to which standards of care are met. Step 3: This action aligns with auditing, which involves assessing if care meets established standards. Step 4: The other choices are incorrect because they do not directly involve auditing or monitoring for compliance with standards of care. Choice B talks about undocumented care, C about reimbursement, and D about treatment outcomes comparison.