ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An 18-year-old pregnant female has tested positive for HIV and asks the nurse if her baby is going to be born with HIV. What is the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides an accurate and comprehensive response to the pregnant patient's question about the risk of her baby being born with HIV. Here's the step-by-step rationale: 1. Option D acknowledges the possibility of the baby contracting HIV at different stages: before, during, or after delivery. This covers all potential scenarios and educates the patient about the risks. 2. By mentioning the different possible transmission times, the nurse highlights the importance of proper prenatal care, delivery planning, and postnatal care to minimize the risk of HIV transmission to the baby. 3. This response empowers the patient with knowledge about the potential risks and emphasizes the importance of seeking appropriate medical interventions to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV. 4. In contrast, options A, B, and C provide less informative or inaccurate responses that do not address the patient's concerns adequately, making them incorrect choices. In summary, option D is the best response as it educates the patient about the risks of HIV transmission
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing the health care disparitiesamong population groups. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Accessibility of health care services. The nurse is monitoring disparities in access to healthcare services among different population groups. This is important as it can influence health outcomes and the prevalence of complications. Outcomes of health conditions (B) are impacted by access to care. Prevalence of complications (C) and incidence of diseases (D) can also be influenced by disparities in accessing healthcare services. However, the primary focus of the nurse's assessment in this scenario is on the accessibility of healthcare services as a key factor contributing to health care disparities.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is teaching a health class about the nutritional requirements throughout the life span. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because infants typically triple their birth weight by 1 year of age due to rapid growth and development. This information is crucial for understanding normal growth patterns in infants. Choice B is incorrect as picky eating behavior is common in toddlers but not a universal characteristic. Choice C is incorrect as school-age children can consume hot dogs and grapes safely as long as they are cut into appropriate sizes to prevent choking hazards. Choice D is incorrect as breastfeeding women actually need an additional 450-500 kcal/day, not 750 kcal/day.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is admitting a 55-year-old male patient diagnosed with a retinal detachment in his left eye. While assessing this patient, what characteristic symptom would the nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why A is correct: 1. Retinal detachment causes traction on the retina. 2. Traction on the retina can stimulate photoreceptors. 3. Stimulation of photoreceptors can lead to perception of flashing lights. 4. Therefore, the characteristic symptom of retinal detachment is flashing lights in the visual field. Summary: B: Sudden eye pain is not a characteristic symptom of retinal detachment. C: Loss of color vision is not typically associated with retinal detachment. D: Colored halos around lights are more indicative of conditions like glaucoma or corneal edema, not retinal detachment.
Question 5 of 9
A patient who came to the clinic after finding a mass in her breast is scheduled for a diagnostic breast biopsy. During the nurses admission assessment, the nurse observes that the patient is distracted and tense. What is it important for the nurse to do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because acknowledging the patient's fear validates their emotions, builds trust, and shows empathy. This can help the patient feel understood and supported during a vulnerable time. Choice B is incorrect because discussing support groups may not address the patient's immediate emotional needs. Choice C is incorrect because assessing stress management skills may not be the priority at this moment when the patient is visibly tense. Choice D is incorrect because documenting a nursing diagnosis should come after addressing the patient's immediate emotional state.
Question 6 of 9
In providing diet education for a patient on a low-fat diet, which information is important for the nurse to share?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because saturated fats are primarily found in animal sources such as red meat, poultry, and dairy products. It is important to limit the intake of saturated fats on a low-fat diet to reduce the risk of heart disease and other health issues. A: Polyunsaturated fats are actually considered healthy fats and should not be restricted to less than 7% of total calories. B: Transfat is a type of unhealthy fat that should be avoided altogether, not just limited to 7% of total calories. C: Unsaturated fats are actually found mostly in plant-based sources like nuts, seeds, and avocados, not animal sources. In summary, choice D is correct because it provides accurate information about the source of saturated fats in animal products, while the other choices provide incorrect or misleading information about different types of fats.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is experiencing oliguria. Which actionshould the nurse performfirst?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess for bladder distention. Oliguria indicates decreased urine output, which could be due to urinary retention. Assessing for bladder distention helps identify the underlying cause. Requesting diuretics (B) without assessing first is premature. Increasing IV fluid rate (C) may worsen the situation if there is urinary retention. Encouraging caffeinated beverages (D) is not appropriate as they can worsen dehydration.
Question 8 of 9
An abortion when the fetus dies but is retained in the uterus is called
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: missed. In a missed abortion, the fetus dies but is not immediately expelled from the uterus. This term specifically describes the situation where the fetus is retained in the uterus. Choice A (inevitable) refers to a situation where abortion is certain to occur, choice C (incomplete) refers to partial expulsion of the fetus, and choice D (threatened) refers to a situation where the woman has vaginal bleeding, but the fetus is still viable. Therefore, the term "missed" accurately describes the scenario where the fetus dies but remains in the uterus.
Question 9 of 9
The patient is admitted with facial trauma, including a broken nose, and has a history of esophageal reflux and of aspiration pneumonia. With which tube will the nursemostlikely administer the feeding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jejunostomy tube. This tube is chosen because the patient has a history of aspiration pneumonia, which puts them at risk for aspiration if feeds are administered into the stomach. By administering feeds through a jejunostomy tube, the risk of aspiration pneumonia is minimized as the feed bypasses the stomach. Nasogastric tube (A) and Nasointestinal tube (C) would still deliver feeds to the stomach, increasing the risk of aspiration. PEG tube (D) is also not ideal as it delivers feeds directly to the stomach, which is not recommended for patients at risk for aspiration.