An 18-year-old patient has developed candidiasis after the case of pneumonia treated with β- lactam antibiotic. What antimycotic agent should be prescribed?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluconazole. Rationale: 1. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, so an antimycotic agent is needed. 2. β-lactam antibiotics like ampicillin can lead to fungal overgrowth, necessitating an antimycotic. 3. Fluconazole is an antifungal agent effective against Candida species. 4. Streptomycin is an antibiotic, not an antifungal. 5. Phthalylsulfathiazole is an antibacterial sulfonamide, not an antifungal. 6. Ampicillin is an antibiotic, not an antifungal.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because both Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are bacteria that can cause tuberculosis in humans. Mycobacterium bovis primarily infects animals but can be transmitted to humans, while Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the main causative agent of tuberculosis in humans. Therefore, both choices A and B are correct. Choice D is incorrect because we know that Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are causative agents of tuberculosis in humans.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Dermatotropic leishmaniasis. The roundish ulcers, lymph node enlargement, and presence of unicellular aflagellar organisms in discharge are characteristic of this parasitic infection transmitted by sandfly bites. Leishmania parasites cause skin lesions and lymphadenopathy. Toxoplasmosis (B) presents with flu-like symptoms, not ulcers. Scabies (C) causes intense itching and burrows, not ulcers. Trypanosomiasis (D) presents with fever, not ulcers. In this case, the symptoms align closely with Dermatotropic leishmaniasis, making it the most likely diagnosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weakly bound to the cell wall. The glycocalyx in bacteria is a protective layer that can be loosely attached to the cell wall or membrane. This loose attachment allows for flexibility and protection against desiccation and immune responses. Choice A is incorrect because the glycocalyx is not strongly bound to the cell wall, as it needs to be able to be shed easily for bacteria to escape host immune responses. Choice B is incorrect because the glycocalyx is not directly involved in bacterial movement, but rather serves as a protective barrier. Choice D is incorrect as the glycocalyx does play a role in bacterial physiology.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which is characteristic of its colonies. This bacterium is commonly associated with purulent infections, especially in immunocompromised patients. Proteus vulgaris (B) is not typically associated with blue-green pigment production. Bacillus subtilis (C) is not a common pathogen in wound infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) does not produce blue-green pigment and is more commonly associated with respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and pigment production, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most likely causative agent in this case.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because antigenic shift is a major change in the influenza virus where genetic material from different influenza viruses mix to create a new subtype. This is a large-scale change that results in a novel virus with a different antigenic composition. Option A and B are incorrect because antigenic shift does involve the exchange of genetic information between animal and human influenza A viruses, and it does occur when animal or avian influenza viruses of type A directly pass into the human population. Option C is incorrect because antigenic shift is not related to the recirculation of a previously circulating influenza strain.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is known to appear as Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. The presence of a capsule is a key characteristic of S. pneumoniae. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is a Gram-positive cocci but typically does not have a capsule. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a Gram-positive cocci. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative rod, not a Gram-positive cocci. Therefore, based on the staining pattern and the presence of a capsule, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because transcription is the process in which messenger RNA transcripts are produced from DNA. During transcription, a specific segment of DNA is transcribed into mRNA by RNA polymerase. Choice A is incorrect because translation, not transcription, involves converting mRNA into protein. Choice B is incorrect as it describes DNA replication, not transcription. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to translation, where polypeptides are synthesized from mRNA. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process of transcription.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Polar placement of volutin granules. This feature is indicative of Corynebacterium diphtheria. Volutin granules are metachromatic granules found in the polar region of the bacterial cell, which is characteristic of this species. This feature helps differentiate it from other bacteria. Explanation: A: Fence-like position of the agent's cells is not a specific morphologic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. B: Spores that exceed cells in diameter is not a characteristic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. D: Presence of the capsule is not a distinguishing morphologic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. In summary, the polar placement of volutin granules is the most indicative feature for determining the type of agent as Corynebacterium diphtheria, making it the correct choice.