ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice A Questions
Question 1 of 5
An 18-year-old college student is hanging shelves in his dorm room. He accidentally hits his thumb with the hammer, which subsequently becomes swollen and red. He takes some aspirin for the pain. Many enzymes and other proteins are activated in response to injury leading to inflammation. Production of which of the following mediators is inhibited by aspirin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin reduces inflammation from injury. PGE2 , a prostaglandin, is inhibited by aspirin's COX blockade. HAT , IκB , and NF-κB are unrelated. NO isn't primarily affected. PGE2's reduction explains aspirin's analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.
Question 2 of 5
Which antipsychotic has the most sedative potential and is sometimes questionably used as a hypnotic agent in certain clinical settings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Quetiapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, has strong histamine H1 antagonism, conferring potent sedation, especially at low doses. This property leads to off-label use as a hypnotic in insomnia, though controversial due to metabolic risks. Fluphenazine and haloperidol, high-potency first-generation drugs, lack sedation, focusing on D2 blockade. Thiothixene, mid-potency, has minimal sedative effects. Iloperidone is less sedating. Quetiapine's antihistaminic action, backed by clinical practice, makes it the most sedative antipsychotic, often leveraged for sleep despite primary indications.
Question 3 of 5
The client receives beclomethasone (Beconase) intranasally as treatment for allergic rhinitis. He asks the nurse if this drug is safe because it is a glucocorticoid. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beclomethasone, an intranasal corticosteroid, treats allergic rhinitis with minimal systemic absorption, reducing risks like adrenal suppression seen with oral steroids. The response 'Intranasal glucocorticoids produce almost no serious adverse effects' reassures the client accurately, as side effects (e.g., nasal irritation) are mild and rare. Swallowing isn't a significant concern due to low bioavailability. Prolonged use might increase minor risks (e.g., epistaxis), but isn't the primary safety factor. Once-daily use aligns with dosing but doesn't define safety. The nurse's best response (A) addresses the client's fear with evidence-based reassurance, emphasizing the drug's localized action and safety profile.
Question 4 of 5
Which assessment finding, by the nurse, is a priority concern when a client receives pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pseudoephedrine's sympathomimetic action risks dysrhythmias, making an irregular heart rate a priority concern for immediate reporting. Fever , respiratory rate , and dry mouth are less urgent. C aligns with cardiovascular risks, making it the priority.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client receiving isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Isoniazid treats TB but risks hepatotoxicity, causing jaundice (yellowing skin, choice C), a serious sign needing immediate reporting to prevent liver failure. Food is optional'INH can be taken either way. Tyramine relates to MAOIs, not INH. Bedtime isn't specific'dosing is flexible. Reporting jaundice aligns with INH's side effect profile, critical in TB therapy where long-term use is common, making C the essential instruction for early detection and safety.