Amphetamine:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Amphetamine is a powerful stimulant of the CNS, increasing alertness and energy levels. Step 2: It stimulates the medullar respiratory center, enhancing breathing, and acts as an analeptic agent. Step 3: Amphetamine increases motor and speech activity, uplifts mood, and reduces fatigue. Step 4: Therefore, all of the above statements are true, making option D the correct choice. Option A is correct as it highlights the CNS stimulant effects. Option B is incorrect as amphetamine does not directly stimulate the medullar respiratory center. Option C is also incorrect as it does not mention the full range of effects of amphetamine.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Sevoflurane is metabolized in the liver to release fluoride ions, which can lead to nephrotoxicity. 2. Fluoride ions can cause renal toxicity by forming calcium fluoride deposits in the renal tubules. 3. This can result in renal tubular dysfunction and acute kidney injury. 4. Halothane is hepatotoxic, not nephrotoxic. Nitrous oxide and diethyl ether do not cause nephrotoxicity. Summary: B: Sevoflurane is correct due to fluoride ion release causing nephrotoxicity. A, C, D are incorrect as they do not cause nephrotoxicity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Aluminium hydroxide. It causes constipation by absorbing water in the intestines, leading to hardened stools. Sodium bicarbonate (A) is an antacid and can cause diarrhea. Calcium carbonate (C) and magnesium oxide (D) are also antacids that can lead to diarrhea due to their laxative effect by increasing water in the intestines.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart failure. Fibrinolytic drugs are not typically used in the treatment of heart failure because they are primarily used to dissolve blood clots. In central deep venous thrombosis (A), multiple pulmonary emboli (B), and acute myocardial infarction (D), the formation of blood clots is a major concern, making fibrinolytic drugs an appropriate treatment option to break down these clots and restore blood flow. In contrast, heart failure does not involve the presence of blood clots, so fibrinolytic drugs would not be effective in managing this condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that acts by inhibiting slow calcium channels in the SA and AV nodes, leading to decreased conduction velocity and reduced contractility of the heart muscle. This results in slowing of the heart rate and can be used to treat conditions such as supraventricular tachycardia. A: Quinidine is a Class I antiarrhythmic drug that works by blocking sodium channels. B: Adenosine acts on adenosine receptors and is used for the termination of supraventricular tachycardia. C: Flecainide is a Class Ic antiarrhythmic drug that blocks sodium channels. Therefore, the correct answer is Diltiazem (D) as it specifically targets calcium channels in the SA and AV nodes, distinguishing it from the other choices.