Among the following Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus has the highest resistance to

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Pediatric Cardiovascular Disorders Nursing Questions

Question 1 of 5

Among the following Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus has the highest resistance to

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pediatric cardiovascular disorders nursing, understanding the pharmacological management of infections, particularly those caused by Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus, is crucial. The correct answer, option C - Erythromycin, is the highest resistance among the given antibiotics due to the emergence of macrolide-resistant strains of Group A streptococcus. Erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic, has been associated with increased resistance in Group A streptococcus over time. This resistance can limit the effectiveness of erythromycin in treating infections caused by this bacterium, making it the highest resistance among the options provided. Looking at the incorrect options: A) Cephalexin is a first-generation cephalosporin that is not typically associated with high resistance in Group A streptococcus. B) Clindamycin is often an effective alternative for treating infections caused by Group A streptococcus, and resistance rates are generally lower compared to erythromycin. D) Doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, is not commonly used as a first-line treatment for Group A streptococcal infections in pediatric patients. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding antibiotic resistance patterns in pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders, guiding healthcare providers in making evidence-based decisions regarding antibiotic selection to optimize patient outcomes while minimizing the risk of treatment failure. It underscores the need for healthcare professionals to stay updated on current resistance trends and guidelines to provide safe and effective care to pediatric patients.

Question 2 of 5

Which is not useful to test brainstem death in suspected cervical spine injury?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of assessing brainstem death in a suspected cervical spine injury, the Doll's-eyes reflex is not useful. This is because the Doll's-eyes reflex involves moving the head side to side to observe if the eyes move in the opposite direction, which can potentially exacerbate cervical spine injury in this scenario. The Pupillary light reflex (option A) is useful in assessing brainstem function as it tests the integrity of cranial nerves II and III, which are controlled by the brainstem. The Corneal reflex (option C) tests the integrity of cranial nerves V and VII, also controlled by the brainstem. The Oculo-vestibular reflex (option D) assesses the function of cranial nerve VIII and the brainstem's response to changes in head position. Educationally, understanding these reflexes and their implications in assessing brainstem function is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. It allows nurses to recognize signs of brainstem dysfunction early, providing timely interventions and improving patient outcomes. This knowledge reinforces the importance of comprehensive neurological assessments in pediatric patients with complex conditions.

Question 3 of 5

The most common coronary artery anomaly in Tetralogy of Fallot is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In Tetralogy of Fallot, the most common coronary artery anomaly is the left anterior descending artery arising from the right aortic sinus (Option A). This anomaly can lead to potential complications due to the abnormal positioning of the coronary arteries. Option B, a single coronary artery arising from the right aortic sinus, is not typically associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. Option C, a single coronary artery arising from the left aortic sinus, is also not commonly seen in this condition. Option D, the left circumflex coronary artery arising from the right aortic sinus, is not the typical anomaly found in Tetralogy of Fallot. Understanding these specific coronary artery anomalies in Tetralogy of Fallot is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients with congenital heart defects. Recognizing these anomalies can help in anticipating and managing potential complications related to coronary artery abnormalities in these patients. This knowledge is essential for providing safe and effective nursing care to children with complex cardiovascular disorders.

Question 4 of 5

Inclisiran used in the treatment of dyslipidemia is chemically a

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Synthetic RNA. Inclisiran is a novel therapeutic option for dyslipidemia that works by inhibiting production of the protein PCSK9, ultimately leading to decreased LDL cholesterol levels. A) Synthetic RNA is the correct answer because Inclisiran is a small interfering RNA (siRNA) molecule designed to target and inhibit the production of specific messenger RNA molecules involved in cholesterol metabolism. B) Synthetic histone, C) Synthetic DNA, and D) Synthetic mitochondria are incorrect because they are not directly related to the mechanism of action of Inclisiran in dyslipidemia treatment. Histones are proteins that DNA wraps around, DNA is the genetic material, and mitochondria are organelles responsible for energy production in cells. Understanding the chemical composition of medications used in pediatric cardiovascular disorders is crucial for nurses to ensure safe and effective administration. Knowledge of pharmacology allows healthcare professionals to make informed decisions, monitor for potential adverse effects, and provide patient education regarding medication management. In this case, knowing that Inclisiran is a synthetic RNA molecule helps nurses comprehend its mechanism of action and its role in managing dyslipidemia in pediatric patients.

Question 5 of 5

All of the following are minor criteria in the latest Revised Jones criteria for rheumatic fever in moderate-high risk population except

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the latest Revised Jones criteria for rheumatic fever in a moderate-high-risk population, the minor criteria include options A, B, and D, making option C, ESR 230 mm/hour, the exception. A) Monoarthalgia is a minor criteria as it refers to pain in a single joint, commonly seen in rheumatic fever due to inflammation. B) Fever with a body temperature ≥ 38.5°C is also a minor criteria, indicating an elevated temperature which can be present in acute rheumatic fever. D) Prolonged PR interval is another minor criteria, reflecting cardiac conduction abnormalities seen in rheumatic fever due to myocardial inflammation. The correct answer, C) ESR 230 mm/hour, is not a minor criteria in the Revised Jones criteria for rheumatic fever. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is not included as a minor criteria in the latest guidelines for diagnosing rheumatic fever in a moderate-high-risk population. Understanding the criteria for diagnosing rheumatic fever is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. It helps in early recognition and appropriate management of this condition to prevent complications like rheumatic heart disease. By knowing the major and minor criteria, nurses can play a vital role in improving outcomes for these patients through timely interventions.

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