Among histological subtypes of classic Hodgkin disease, the most common one in children is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Mixed cellularity. In classic Hodgkin disease, mixed cellularity is the most common histological subtype in children. This subtype is characterized by a mixed inflammatory cell infiltrate, including lymphocytes, plasma cells, eosinophils, and histiocytes. Option A) Nodular sclerosis is another subtype of classic Hodgkin disease, but it is more commonly seen in adolescents and young adults rather than children. Option B) Lymphocyte predominance is a subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma, but it is distinct from classic Hodgkin disease and is rarely seen in children. Option C) Lymphocyte depletion is a rare subtype of classic Hodgkin disease and is not the most common subtype in children. Educationally, understanding the histological subtypes of Hodgkin disease is crucial for pediatric nurses as it helps in recognizing the differences in presentation, prognosis, and treatment approaches. Knowing the most common subtype in children can aid in providing appropriate care and support to pediatric patients with Hodgkin disease.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Earlier-than-normal tooth eruption. At 6 months old, having six teeth is considered early tooth eruption. In pediatric dentistry, the usual timeline for primary teeth eruption is between 6 to 12 months, with most infants having their first tooth around 6-7 months. This situation is not considered abnormal, dangerous, or delayed. It is crucial for pediatric nurses to understand typical developmental milestones, including tooth eruption patterns, to provide appropriate care and guidance to parents. Option A) Normal tooth eruption is incorrect because having six teeth at 6 months is considered early. Option B) Delayed tooth eruption is incorrect as the scenario describes early rather than delayed eruption. Option C) Unusual and dangerous is incorrect as it does not align with the common understanding of tooth eruption patterns in infants. Understanding these nuances in pediatric development is vital for nurses caring for young children to provide accurate information and support to families regarding dental health and overall well-being.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) 9.5 years for the first visible sign of puberty in males, which is testicular enlargement. This is a critical milestone in male pubertal development as it marks the beginning of physical changes associated with puberty. Testicular enlargement typically occurs between the ages of 9-14 years, with 9.5 years being a common starting point. Option A) 5 years is too young for testicular enlargement to occur in males. Puberty typically begins around the ages of 8-14 years, so 5 years is too early for this development. Option C) 10.5 years is closer to the typical age range for testicular enlargement to start, but 9.5 years is a more common and accurate timeframe for this specific sign of male puberty. Option D) 11.5 years is within the range of normal puberty onset, but it may be a bit later than when testicular enlargement usually begins in males. Educationally, understanding the sequence and timing of puberty signs in males is crucial for pediatric nurses as it helps them assess normal growth and development in young patients. By knowing these milestones, nurses can provide appropriate support, education, and anticipatory guidance to both children going through puberty and their caregivers.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Exposure to smokeless tobacco increases the user's risk for cancers of the esophagus (Option C) due to the harmful chemicals present in these products. This is the correct answer because smokeless tobacco contains carcinogens that can directly come into contact with the esophagus, leading to the development of cancer over time. Option A, lipoid pneumonia, is not directly associated with smokeless tobacco use. Lipoid pneumonia is typically caused by inhalation or aspiration of fatty substances into the lungs, which is not a common risk factor for smokeless tobacco users. Option B, chronic cough, may occur as a result of smokeless tobacco use, but it is a more general symptom and not specifically linked to an increased risk of cancers of the esophagus. Option D, irritability, is a potential side effect of nicotine withdrawal but is not a direct consequence of smokeless tobacco use increasing the risk of esophageal cancers. In an educational context, understanding the specific health risks associated with smokeless tobacco is crucial for healthcare providers, especially pediatric nurses who may encounter young individuals experimenting with tobacco products. Educating patients and families about the dangers of smokeless tobacco can help prevent long-term health consequences such as cancer development.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) 60%. Nasal cannula is a common device used to deliver supplemental oxygen to pediatric patients. The maximum percentage of FiO2 that can be delivered via a nasal cannula is typically around 40-60%. In pediatric patients, a flow rate of 1-2 L/min can deliver approximately 24-28% oxygen, while a flow rate of 4 L/min can deliver around 35-40% oxygen. Therefore, the option C) 60% is correct as it falls within the typical range of oxygen delivery via nasal cannula in pediatric patients. Option A) 40% is incorrect as it represents the lower end of the range and may not be the maximum percentage achievable with a nasal cannula. Option B) 50% is also lower than the correct answer and falls within the lower range of oxygen delivery. Option D) 80% is too high to be delivered effectively via a nasal cannula as the mechanism of delivery is not designed to provide such high concentrations of oxygen. Understanding the percentage of FiO2 that can be delivered via a nasal cannula is crucial for pediatric nurses as they are responsible for providing safe and effective oxygen therapy to pediatric patients. Knowing the capabilities and limitations of different oxygen delivery devices is essential for ensuring appropriate oxygen therapy and preventing complications associated with incorrect oxygen delivery.