ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice A Questions
Question 1 of 5
Amiodarone:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic that affects sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), and calcium (Ca2+) channels, prolonging repolarization, so the statement excluding Ca2+ effects is false. It has antianginal effects by reducing myocardial oxygen demand through heart rate and afterload reduction, a true statement and its correct attribute. Its half-life is exceptionally long (weeks to months), not short, due to extensive tissue distribution, making that false. It decreases, not increases, peripheral resistance via vasodilation, so that's incorrect. It also affects the lungs, causing potential pulmonary toxicity, not minimal impact. The antianginal property is key to its use in angina alongside arrhythmias, reflecting its broad ion channel blockade and hemodynamic benefits, necessitating careful monitoring for side effects.
Question 2 of 5
The patient comes to the emergency department following an overdose of aspirin, an acidic drug. What will the best plan of the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Aspirin overdose, an acidic drug, causes metabolic acidosis; sodium bicarbonate alkalinizes urine, enhancing excretion by ionizing aspirin, reducing toxicity. IV fluids support hydration but don't target pH. Ammonium chloride acidifies, worsening acidosis. Proteins don't bind aspirin effectively in this context-albumin's role is minimal. Bicarbonate addresses salicylate poisoning directly, a standard emergency approach.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse teaching a pre-conception class would tell participants that they should be most careful about exposure to drugs during which stage of pregnancy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The embryonic stage (weeks 3-8) is peak risk-organogenesis makes fetuses vulnerable to teratogens (e.g., alcohol causing FAS), per developmental biology. Equal risk ignores stages. Pre-implantation (pre-week 3) has less organ impact. Third trimester affects growth, less malformation. Embryonic caution is critical, shaping warnings.
Question 4 of 5
A 40-year-old patient experiencing periods of mania and periods of depression would most likely benefit from which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Carbamazepine, a mood stabilizer, treats bipolar mania/depression-per psychiatry-unlike atomoxetine (ADHD), amitriptyline (depression), or methylphenidate (ADHD). It fits cycles, per evidence.
Question 5 of 5
A 23-year-old man is a driver who is involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is found to have a blood alcohol level of 850 mg/dL. Because of the way the body handles ethanol, the conventional 'half-life' to describe its metabolism does not apply. Which of the following drugs at therapeutic concentrations exhibits the same property?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ethanol's zero-order metabolism (constant rate) differs from first-order half-life kinetics. Phenytoin shares this-saturating hepatic enzymes at therapeutic levels, making it correct. Ibuprofen , Simvastatin , Tolbutamide , and Valproic acid (E) follow first-order kinetics. Phenytoin's saturation mimics ethanol's fixed clearance, relevant to toxicology.