Amfotericin B has the following unwanted effects:

Questions 52

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Cardiovascular Drug Safety Pharmacology Questions

Question 1 of 5

Amfotericin B has the following unwanted effects:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Amphotericin B is known to cause renal impairment and anemia due to its nephrotoxicity and bone marrow suppression. 2. Renal impairment can lead to electrolyte imbalances and decreased kidney function. 3. Anemia can result from bone marrow toxicity, leading to decreased red blood cell production. 4. The other choices (A, C, D) are incorrect as psychosis, hypertension, cardiac arrhythmia, and bone marrow toxicity are not commonly associated with Amphotericin B use. Summary: The correct answer is B because Amphotericin B is most notably known for causing renal impairment and anemia, while the other choices are not typically associated with its unwanted effects.

Question 2 of 5

Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivative of alkylsulfonate:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Busulfan. Busulfan is an alkylating agent that works by attaching alkyl groups to DNA, preventing cancer cell growth. Fluorouracil (A) is a pyrimidine analog, Carboplatin (B) is a platinum-based compound, and Vinblastine (C) is a vinca alkaloid - all these are not alkylating agents. Busulfan is specifically derived from alkylsulfonate, making it the correct choice for an anticancer alkylating drug.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following drugs was most likely added to the patient's therapy resulting in his present complaint?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause constipation, which is a common complaint in patients. Hydralazine (A) can cause reflex tachycardia, Propranolol (B) is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia, and Clonidine (D) is an alpha-2 agonist that can cause hypotension. Therefore, based on the patient's complaint of constipation, Verapamil is the most likely drug added to the patient's therapy.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following would be an appropriate therapeutic adjustment for the 65-year-old man with acute distress and cardiac failure?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because discontinuing digoxin and starting losartan is the appropriate therapeutic adjustment for a 65-year-old man with acute distress and cardiac failure. Digoxin is not recommended in the acute phase of heart failure as it can worsen symptoms. Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, is beneficial in heart failure by improving outcomes and reducing hospitalizations. Discontinuing digoxin eliminates the risk of toxicity and adverse effects. Other choices are incorrect because adding potassium supplementation (Choice A) can increase the risk of hyperkalemia, adding atropine (Choice B) is not indicated in heart failure, and increasing furosemide dose (Choice C) may lead to electrolyte imbalances without addressing the underlying cause.

Question 5 of 5

The oral absorption of following osmotic diuretic is negligible

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

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