ATI RN
Wongs Essentials of Pediatric Nursing 11th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Although the etiology of hepatoblastoma is unknown, there are many associated risk factors for development of hepatoblastoma EXCEPT
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is E, which implies that none of the provided options are associated risk factors for the development of hepatoblastoma. A) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is a known risk factor for hepatoblastoma. It is characterized by overgrowth, abdominal wall defects, and an increased risk of developing childhood cancers. B) Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome is also a risk factor for hepatoblastoma. This syndrome is characterized by the development of numerous polyps in the colon and rectum, increasing the risk of colorectal cancer as well as hepatoblastoma. C) Prematurity is not a known risk factor for hepatoblastoma. Prematurity is associated with various complications, but not specifically with hepatoblastoma. D) Low birth weight is also not a known risk factor for hepatoblastoma. While low birth weight infants may have other health concerns, it is not directly linked to the development of hepatoblastoma. Educational Context: Understanding the risk factors associated with hepatoblastoma is crucial for healthcare providers working in pediatrics. By knowing the risk factors, healthcare providers can monitor high-risk children more closely, potentially leading to early detection and intervention. This knowledge can also aid in educating parents about the importance of regular check-ups and screenings for their children.
Question 2 of 5
Chemotherapy has a major role in many childhood CNS tumors. In which of the following tumors is chemotherapy not effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chemotherapy is a crucial treatment modality for many childhood CNS tumors, but its effectiveness varies depending on the tumor type. In the case of pilocytic astrocytoma, it is typically considered a low-grade tumor with a well-defined structure, making it more amenable to surgical resection and less responsive to chemotherapy. This tumor usually has a good prognosis with surgery alone. Craniopharyngioma, pineoblastoma, and SPNETs are more aggressive tumors that often require a multimodal treatment approach involving surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation. Chemotherapy plays a significant role in targeting the rapidly dividing cancer cells in these types of tumors, helping to reduce tumor size, prevent recurrence, and improve overall outcomes. Educationally, understanding the varying responses of different CNS tumors to chemotherapy is essential for healthcare providers involved in the care of pediatric oncology patients. It highlights the importance of individualized treatment plans based on tumor characteristics and guides discussions with families regarding treatment expectations and potential outcomes. This knowledge empowers healthcare professionals to provide optimal care and support to pediatric patients and their families facing CNS tumors.
Question 3 of 5
Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumor in children and adolescents; it has multiple subtypes and requires different modalities of treatment including surgery and chemotherapy. Of the following, the subtype of osteosarcoma which is treated by surgery alone is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) periosteal. Periosteal osteosarcoma is a subtype of osteosarcoma that typically presents in the surface of the bone, making it more amenable to complete surgical resection without the need for chemotherapy. This subtype has a better prognosis compared to other subtypes like fibroblastic, chondroblastic, and parosteal osteosarcoma. Fibroblastic and chondroblastic osteosarcomas are subtypes that usually require a combination of surgery and chemotherapy for optimal treatment outcomes. Parosteal osteosarcoma, while slow-growing and low-grade, may also necessitate a combination of surgical resection and chemotherapy due to its location and potential for recurrence. In an educational context, understanding the different subtypes of osteosarcoma and their varying treatment modalities is crucial for pediatric nurses caring for children and adolescents with this condition. It highlights the importance of accurate diagnosis, appropriate treatment planning, and the role of interdisciplinary collaboration in managing pediatric oncology patients effectively.
Question 4 of 5
At which stage of development are children apt to believe in the reversibility of death?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Understanding the concept of death and its irreversibility is a crucial aspect of a child's cognitive development. According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, children in the preschool age group (around 3-5 years old) tend to believe in the reversibility of death. This is because they are in the preoperational stage of development, characterized by egocentrism and magical thinking. At this stage, children may believe that death is temporary and reversible, much like other events in their imaginative play. Option A, toddlers, are in the sensorimotor stage according to Piaget, where they are focused on sensory experiences and object permanence rather than abstract concepts like death reversibility. Option C, school-age children, are typically in the concrete operational stage where they begin to understand logical reasoning but may still struggle with abstract concepts like death. Option D, adolescents, are in the formal operational stage where they can think abstractly, but by this stage, they have typically developed a more concrete understanding of death's permanence. Educationally, understanding at what stage children grasp the concept of death's irreversibility is crucial for healthcare professionals, educators, and caregivers working with children. By knowing this information, they can tailor their explanations and support based on the child's cognitive developmental stage, helping them cope with grief and loss in a developmentally appropriate manner.
Question 5 of 5
The pediatric nurse prepares a patient, who is newly paralyzed, for discharge. The patient will require home care, ancillary therapies, complex medication regimens, and would benefit from a peer support group. To ensure adequate preparation for discharge and transition to home life, the nurse will:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) ask the social worker or case manager to organize a care conference. This option is the most comprehensive and essential step to ensure a successful discharge and transition for the newly paralyzed patient. By organizing a care conference, all aspects of the patient's care, including home care, ancillary therapies, medication regimens, and peer support, can be discussed and coordinated among the healthcare team, patient, and family. Option B) assess the family for transportation needs is important but is not as critical as organizing a care conference. Transportation needs can be addressed after the care conference when all other essential aspects of care have been planned. Option C) call the medical supply company to ensure delivery of home care equipment is a necessary step but should be coordinated after the care conference to ensure that the equipment aligns with the overall care plan discussed during the conference. Option D) contact the patient's school to ensure its readiness to accommodate the patient is not relevant in this scenario as the patient is being discharged home and not returning to school. In an educational context, it is vital for pediatric nurses to understand the importance of comprehensive discharge planning and coordination of care for patients with complex needs. Organizing a care conference allows for a collaborative approach to address all aspects of care and support for the patient and their family during the transition to home life.