ATI RN
Conception and Fetal Development NCLEX Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Along with gas exchange and nutrient transfer, the placenta produces many hormones necessary for normal pregnancy, including which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and understanding the role of hormones in pregnancy, it is crucial to delve into the functions of various hormones produced by the placenta. Estrogen, which is the correct answer in this case, plays a pivotal role in maintaining the pregnancy by promoting growth of the uterus and increasing blood flow to the placenta. It also helps regulate other hormones essential for pregnancy. Progesterone, another hormone produced by the placenta, helps maintain the uterine lining for implantation and supports early pregnancy. Insulin, on the other hand, is produced by the pancreas and is not directly related to placental hormone production. Testosterone is primarily a male sex hormone and is not a hormone produced by the placenta during pregnancy. Educationally, understanding the functions of these hormones in pregnancy is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially pharmacologists, as it can impact drug interactions and treatment approaches for pregnant individuals. By grasping the roles of these hormones, healthcare providers can make informed decisions to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who has just received confirmation that she is pregnant is distressed because she has a seizure disorder that she manages with carbamazepine. Which is the nurse’s greatest concern?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Carbamazepine is teratogenic and causes neural and facial defects. The greatest concern for the nurse is the teratogenic effects of carbamazepine on the developing fetus. Carbamazepine is known to increase the risk of neural tube defects, craniofacial abnormalities, and developmental delays when taken during pregnancy. Therefore, it is crucial to educate the patient about the potential harm to the fetus and work with the healthcare provider to find a safer alternative to manage her seizure disorder during pregnancy. Option A) The carbamazepine may be discontinued is incorrect because abruptly stopping anti-seizure medication can pose risks to both the mother and the fetus due to uncontrolled seizures. Option B) The pregnancy is likely to end with fetal demise is incorrect as it is an extreme and unfounded statement. Proper management of the medication and close monitoring can help ensure a healthy pregnancy outcome. Option C) The fetus will experience loss of vision and hearing is incorrect as there is no direct evidence linking carbamazepine to these specific fetal abnormalities. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding teratogenic effects of medications during pregnancy and the need for healthcare providers to carefully weigh the risks and benefits of medication use in pregnant patients with pre-existing medical conditions. It also emphasizes the role of nurses in patient education and advocating for the best interests of both the mother and the unborn child.
Question 3 of 5
A patient at 34 weeks gestation is undergoing an ultrasound. The nurse notes that the amniotic fluid is estimated at between 500 and 600 mL. Which deduction does the nurse make from this finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Oligohydramnios is present. Oligohydramnios refers to a condition where there is a decreased volume of amniotic fluid. At 34 weeks gestation, the normal amniotic fluid volume should be around 800-1000 mL. A volume of 500-600 mL indicates a lower than normal amount of fluid, which can lead to complications such as poor fetal lung development, compression of the umbilical cord, and fetal growth restriction. Option B) Fluid is normal for gestational age is incorrect because, as mentioned earlier, the normal volume of amniotic fluid at 34 weeks gestation should be higher. Option C) Polyhydramnios has formed is incorrect because polyhydramnios is the opposite condition where there is an excessive amount of amniotic fluid present. Option D) Follow-up ultrasound is warranted may be true in some cases to monitor the situation closely, but the immediate concern in this scenario is the presence of oligohydramnios, which requires prompt evaluation and management to prevent potential complications for the fetus. Understanding the normal range of amniotic fluid volume at different gestational ages is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers caring for pregnant patients. Monitoring and recognizing deviations from the normal range are essential for timely interventions to ensure optimal maternal and fetal outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
In which structure does fertilization usually occur?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the process of conception, fertilization typically occurs in the fallopian tube, making option C the correct answer. The fallopian tube is the site where the egg (ovum) released from the ovary meets the sperm for fertilization to take place. This structure provides the ideal environment for the initial stages of development before the fertilized egg travels to the uterus for implantation. Option A, the ovary, is incorrect because while the egg is released from the ovary during ovulation, fertilization does not occur there. Option B, the uterus, is also incorrect as fertilization does not occur in the uterus but rather in the fallopian tube. Option D, the vagina, is not the site of fertilization but rather serves as the entry point for sperm during sexual intercourse. Understanding the process of conception and fetal development is crucial in pharmacology as it helps healthcare professionals comprehend the timing and effects of medications on pregnancy. Having this knowledge is vital for pharmacists and healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective medication management for pregnant individuals.
Question 5 of 5
What information would the nurse include when teaching a patient newly diagnosed with Huntington disease about having children?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer, C) “You have a 50 percent chance of passing the gene on to your children,” is the most accurate because Huntington disease follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. This means that an affected individual has a 50% chance of passing the gene on to each of their offspring. Option A is incorrect as it oversimplifies the genetic transmission of Huntington disease. Both parents do not need to have the disease for their children to inherit it. Option B is incorrect as Huntington disease is not limited to male children; both males and females can be affected. Option D is incorrect as it describes a different mechanism of genetic disorder unrelated to Huntington disease. In an educational context, understanding the genetic inheritance pattern of Huntington disease is crucial for individuals who have been diagnosed with the condition. Providing accurate information about the likelihood of passing on the gene can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic counseling. Educating patients about the genetic aspects of Huntington disease empowers them to make decisions that align with their values and preferences.