Almost half of all the STIs diagnosed in the United States are among:

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Question 1 of 9

Almost half of all the STIs diagnosed in the United States are among:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: young adults. Young adults are at a higher risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) due to factors such as engaging in risky sexual behaviors, lack of awareness, and inconsistent condom use. They are more likely to have multiple sexual partners and are less likely to seek regular STI screenings. Adolescents, while also at risk, may not make up almost half of all STI cases in the U.S. The elderly, on the other hand, are generally at a lower risk due to lower levels of sexual activity compared to young adults.

Question 2 of 9

A 30-year-old patient complains about having abdominal pain and diarrhea for five days; body temperature rise up to 37, 5oC along with chills. The day before a patient had been in a forest and drunk from an open water reservoir. Laboratory analyses enabled to make the following diagnosis: amebic dysentery. What is the drug of choice for its treatment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery due to its effectiveness against the causative agent, Entamoeba histolytica. 2. Metronidazole has good tissue penetration and is able to reach the site of infection in the gut. 3. It is a bactericidal drug that acts by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite. 4. Metronidazole is well-absorbed orally and has minimal side effects. Summary of other choices: B: Furazolidonum - Not the drug of choice for amebic dysentery. It is primarily used for treating bacterial diarrhea. C: Levomycetin - Not effective against Entamoeba histolytica and not recommended for amebic dysentery. D: Phthalazol - Not commonly used for amebic dysentery treatment. Metronidazole is preferred due

Question 3 of 9

A 3 month old infant has got a white deposition on the mucous membrane of his mouth, tongue and lips. The doctor suspected candidosis. What nutrient medium should be used for inoculation of the material under examination in order to confirm this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sabouraud. Sabouraud agar is specifically designed for the cultivation of fungi and yeasts, making it ideal for identifying Candida species causing candidosis. It contains antibiotics to inhibit bacterial growth, promoting the growth of fungi. Endo, Loewenstein-Jensen, and Roux are not suitable for fungal cultures and are used for different purposes like bacterial isolation or mycobacterial cultures. Sabouraud agar is the best choice for confirming candidosis due to its fungal-selective properties.

Question 4 of 9

Etiological cause of bacteremia could be:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because bacteremia can be caused by a variety of bacteria including S.epidermidis, E.coli, S.aureus, P.aeruginosa, K.pneumoniae, and resident skin diphtheroids. Bacteremia refers to the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, which can occur due to infections from various sources. Choices A and B include common bacteria known to cause bacteremia, while choice C refers to resident skin diphtheroids that can also enter the bloodstream under certain conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it encompasses all the possible etiological causes of bacteremia.

Question 5 of 9

Which bacteria are responsible for causing the plague?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia pestis. Yersinia pestis is the bacterium responsible for causing the plague, specifically the bubonic plague. It is transmitted through fleas and rodents. Escherichia coli (A) is a common gut bacterium, Clostridium difficile (C) causes antibiotic-associated diarrhea, and Staphylococcus aureus (D) is associated with skin infections, but they are not responsible for causing the plague.

Question 6 of 9

The time response measures all of the following except:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ED50. The time response does not measure the ED50 because ED50 refers to the effective dose needed to produce a response in 50% of the population, which is a dose-related concept, not a time-related one. Peak effect time, onset of response, and threshold level are all time-related measures in pharmacology. Peak effect time is the time taken to reach the maximum response, onset of response is the time taken for the response to start, and threshold level is the minimum dose or concentration required to produce a response. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only choice that is not a time-related measure in this context.

Question 7 of 9

A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. Step 1: Gram-negative diplococci - characteristic of Neisseria species. Step 2: Oxidase-positive - Neisseria species are oxidase-positive. Step 3: Fermentative - Neisseria meningitidis is a fermentative bacterium. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent. Summary: - B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Neisseria species but is not fermentative. - C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. - D: Haemophilus influenzae is not a Neisseria species and is not typically fermentative.

Question 8 of 9

Salmonellosis is caused by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Salmonella enteritidis. Salmonellosis is typically caused by Salmonella species, with Salmonella enteritidis being one of the common culprits. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not salmonellosis. Shigella flexneri is responsible for causing shigellosis, a different bacterial infection. Choosing "None of the above" is incorrect as Salmonella enteritidis is a known cause of salmonellosis.

Question 9 of 9

The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propionibacterium acnes. This bacterium is not a fungus, but a common skin bacteria. Fungal vaginitis is typically caused by Candida albicans or other fungal species, not by bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus agalactiae, or Klebsiella oxytoca. Propionibacterium acnes is not associated with vaginal infections, making it the correct answer in this context.

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