ATI RN
Hematology Oncology Question Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
All the following are treatment options for immune thrombocytopenia EXCEPT
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A 6-year- old boy presented three hours after receiving whole blood transfusion with fever and chills, his urine color is clear and the mother stated that the transfusion process went smoothly. Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A 67-year-old man is evaluated for exertional dyspnea. He recalls that 3 years ago he was told that he had anemia. In reviewing his records, you note that at that time his hemoglobin level was 9.5 g/dL and his hematocrit was 33% with an increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV); the remainder of his complete blood cell count was normal. On physical examination, he had conjunctival pallor, normal heart and lung findings, no lymphadenopathy, no hepatomegaly or splenomegaly, and no petechiae or ecchymoses. Diagnostic testing results are shown in Table 9.Q1. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: MDS most commonly manifests as isolated macrocytic anemia, evolving to pancytopenia over years, with a dimorphic erythrocyte population and pronounced macrocytosis (MCV 110 fL), as seen here. AML (A) is acute, not chronic. Vitamin B12 deficiency (B) causes megaloblastic anemia but not dimorphic erythrocytes. Hemolytic anemia (C) would show elevated reticulocytes, not 0.3%. Primary myelofibrosis (E) features splenomegaly and fibrosis, absent here.
Question 4 of 5
A 42-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents with fatigue. She has been receiving anti-tumor necrosis factor therapy and has been managing the SLE well. However, she has recently experienced worsening fatigue. Her vital signs are normal. Her face and conjunctivae are jaundiced, and she has a fading butterfly rash on her face. The spleen is palpable on deep inspiration. Diagnostic testing results are shown in Table 9.Q6, and the peripheral blood film is shown in Figure 9.Q6. Which of the following is the best interpretation of these data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SLE-related warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA) is indicated by jaundice, splenomegaly, anemia (hemoglobin 7.8 g/dL), elevated LDH, bilirubin, and reticulocytes (4%), with spherocytes. Direct Coombs test is positive in WAIHA. Intravascular hemolysis (A) would show urine hemoglobin, not seen. Bone marrow responds adequately (B, reticulocytes 170 × 10^9/L).
Question 5 of 5
A 62-year-old man with chronic atrial fibrillation has been treated with warfarin. He has no other chronic illnesses and is receiving no other medications long-term except for lipid-lowering agents. Results of his complete blood cell count and tests of renal and kidney function are normal. He checks his prothrombin time monthly and has kept the international normalized ratio (INR) within the therapeutic range (2-3) for the duration of his therapy with warfarin. He has heard about recent US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval of dabigatran, which requires no monitoring, and he would like a prescription for this new drug. Which of the following statements is true about the use of dabigatran in atrial fibrillation compared with the well-managed use of warfarin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.