All the following are recognized features of 'well-controlled' asthma in a 7-year-old boy EXCEPT

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Pediatric Nursing Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

All the following are recognized features of 'well-controlled' asthma in a 7-year-old boy EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the features of well-controlled asthma is crucial for providing effective care to children. In this scenario, the correct answer is D) 2-4 exacerbations in the past year, which is NOT a recognized feature of well-controlled asthma in a 7-year-old boy. A) FEV1/FVC ratio >80%: This is a recognized feature of well-controlled asthma as it indicates good lung function and airflow. B) FEV1 >80% of predicted: Another indicator of well-controlled asthma, showing that the child's forced expiratory volume is within the normal range. C) Daytime symptoms ≤2 days/week: A characteristic feature of well-controlled asthma, as minimal daytime symptoms suggest good asthma management. D) 2-4 exacerbations in the past year: This is not a feature of well-controlled asthma. The goal of asthma management is to minimize exacerbations, so having 2-4 exacerbations indicates suboptimal control. Educational Context: Understanding the features of well-controlled asthma helps healthcare providers assess and manage pediatric asthma effectively. Monitoring lung function, symptoms frequency, and exacerbation rates are essential in guiding treatment decisions and ensuring optimal asthma control in children. By recognizing these features, nurses can intervene promptly to prevent asthma exacerbations and improve the quality of life for pediatric patients with asthma.

Question 2 of 5

One of the following medications used in treatment of atopic dermatitis should be discontinued after failure to achieve good results within 4-6 weeks

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of atopic dermatitis, it is important to understand the appropriate use of medications and their timelines for effectiveness. In this case, the correct answer is C) omalizumab. Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets IgE, which is involved in the allergic response seen in atopic dermatitis. If a patient fails to achieve good results within 4-6 weeks of starting omalizumab, it is recommended to discontinue this medication. Regarding the other options: A) Methotrexate and B) Azathioprine are immunosuppressant medications commonly used in the treatment of various dermatological conditions, but they are not typically first-line treatments for atopic dermatitis. These medications may take longer to show effectiveness, and discontinuing them after 4-6 weeks may not be appropriate. D) Mycophenolate mofetil is another immunosuppressant used in dermatology for conditions such as lupus and psoriasis. Like methotrexate and azathioprine, mycophenolate mofetil may also require a longer timeframe to assess its efficacy in the treatment of atopic dermatitis. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate use of medications for atopic dermatitis is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide safe and effective care to their patients. Knowing when to continue or discontinue specific medications based on treatment response timelines is essential in managing the condition and ensuring the best outcomes for the pediatric population.

Question 3 of 5

In the presence of convincing history of a severe systemic reaction, the next diagnostic step for those with initially negative skin test is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing practice, it is crucial to understand the diagnostic approach in cases of severe systemic reactions, especially regarding allergy testing. The correct answer, B) repeat skin test after 4-6 weeks, is the most appropriate next step when initial skin tests are negative despite a convincing history of a severe systemic reaction. The rationale behind this is that skin testing may yield false-negative results due to various factors such as medications, age of the patient, or technical errors during the initial test. By repeating the skin test after a few weeks, there is a chance that the immune response has had time to develop, potentially leading to a positive result. Option A) in vitro serum assay for venom-specific IgE may not be as sensitive or specific as repeat skin testing in this scenario. Serum tryptase level (Option C) is useful for assessing mast cell activation but is not the primary diagnostic test for venom allergies. Plasma histamine (Option D) levels are not typically used in the diagnosis of venom allergies in this context. Educationally, understanding the nuances of allergy testing in pediatric patients is vital for nurses to provide safe and effective care. It highlights the importance of considering clinical history alongside diagnostic tests and the need for a comprehensive approach to accurately diagnose and manage allergic reactions in children.

Question 4 of 5

Contact lenses are associated with

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) giant papillary conjunctivitis. Contact lenses are associated with this condition due to chronic mechanical irritation from the lens surface. Giant papillary conjunctivitis is characterized by inflammation of the inner surface of the eyelids, leading to symptoms like itching, redness, and mucous discharge. Option A) contact allergy is incorrect because it refers to an allergic reaction to the material of the contact lens itself, not specifically related to wearing contact lenses. Option B) allergic conjunctivitis is incorrect as it is a general term for inflammation of the conjunctiva due to allergens, not directly linked to contact lens wear. Option C) vernal keratoconjunctivitis is incorrect as it is a seasonal allergic condition affecting the conjunctiva and cornea, typically seen in children and young adults, and is not directly caused by contact lenses. In pediatric nursing practice, understanding the complications associated with contact lens wear is crucial to providing comprehensive care to children who use them. Educating parents and children about proper contact lens hygiene, regular follow-ups with eye care providers, and recognizing signs of complications like giant papillary conjunctivitis are essential components of pediatric eye care education.

Question 5 of 5

One of the principal pathologic features in fatal anaphylaxis is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In fatal anaphylaxis, one of the principal pathologic features is acute bronchial obstruction, making option A the correct answer. This is because anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction that can cause the airways to narrow rapidly, leading to breathing difficulties and potentially fatal consequences. Acute bronchial obstruction can result in respiratory distress and, if not promptly treated, can lead to respiratory failure and death. Option B, hypotension, is a common feature of anaphylaxis but is not the principal pathologic feature in fatal cases. While hypotension can occur due to systemic vasodilation and fluid shifts, it is the acute bronchial obstruction that is more directly associated with fatal outcomes in anaphylaxis. Options C and D, behavioral change and abdominal pain, are not primary pathologic features of fatal anaphylaxis. Behavioral changes may occur due to hypoxia resulting from bronchial obstruction, but they are not the principal feature. Abdominal pain is typically associated with conditions like abdominal emergencies or gastrointestinal issues, not with fatal anaphylaxis. In an educational context, understanding the key pathologic features of fatal anaphylaxis is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working with pediatric patients who may be more vulnerable to severe allergic reactions. Recognizing and promptly addressing acute bronchial obstruction can be life-saving in managing anaphylactic reactions in children. Training in recognizing the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis and knowing the appropriate interventions is essential for nurses and other healthcare professionals caring for pediatric patients.

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