ATI RN
Pediatric GI Disorders Test Bank Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
All the following are real risk factors for vitamin B12 deficiency EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is option C) helicobacter pylori infection, which is NOT a real risk factor for vitamin B12 deficiency. Helicobacter pylori infection primarily affects the stomach lining and is associated with conditions like gastritis and peptic ulcers, but not directly linked to vitamin B12 deficiency. Let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) Celiac disease is a risk factor for vitamin B12 deficiency because it can lead to malabsorption issues in the intestines, affecting the absorption of essential nutrients like B12. B) Ileal resection involves the surgical removal of a portion of the ileum, which is where vitamin B12 absorption primarily occurs. Therefore, this surgery can significantly increase the risk of B12 deficiency. D) The use of proton pump inhibitors can reduce the production of stomach acid, which is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. Prolonged use of these medications can hinder B12 absorption and increase the risk of deficiency. Educational Context: Understanding risk factors for vitamin B12 deficiency is crucial in the context of pediatric GI disorders. This knowledge helps healthcare providers identify patients at higher risk and implement appropriate monitoring and treatment strategies to prevent complications associated with B12 deficiency. By differentiating between real and unrelated risk factors, healthcare professionals can provide more targeted care for pediatric patients with GI disorders.
Question 2 of 5
Inorganic phosphorus is raised in
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Inorganic phosphorus levels are increased in chronic renal failure (Option C) due to decreased renal excretion. In this condition, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter and eliminate phosphorus from the body, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This is a key characteristic of renal failure and a common finding in pediatric patients with this condition. Option A, Fanconi syndrome, is characterized by renal tubular dysfunction leading to wastage of various substances including phosphorus. Therefore, in Fanconi syndrome, inorganic phosphorus levels would be decreased rather than raised. Option B, dietary calcium deficiency, does not directly impact inorganic phosphorus levels. While calcium and phosphorus metabolism are closely linked, a deficiency in one does not necessarily result in an increase in the other. Option D, vitamin D deficiency, can lead to decreased absorption of phosphorus in the gut, but it typically results in lower levels of inorganic phosphorus rather than elevated levels. Understanding the alterations in inorganic phosphorus levels in different pediatric GI disorders is crucial for healthcare providers to make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment. It also highlights the interconnectedness of various body systems and the importance of considering multiple factors when evaluating pediatric patients with GI disorders.
Question 3 of 5
In evaluating the cause of rickets, which test is convenient if malabsorption is a consideration?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rickets is a condition primarily caused by a lack of vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate, leading to weakened or soft bones in children. When considering malabsorption as a potential cause of rickets, the most appropriate test to evaluate this is the hydrogen breath test (Option D). This test helps in diagnosing conditions like lactose intolerance or bacterial overgrowth in the small intestine, both of which can lead to malabsorption issues. Option A, PT (Prothrombin Time), is a test used to measure blood clotting ability and is not directly related to evaluating malabsorption in rickets. Option B, stool pH, is more useful in assessing conditions like diarrhea or gastrointestinal infections, rather than malabsorption. Option C, a barium study, is a radiologic test that helps visualize the gastrointestinal tract's structure and function but may not specifically address malabsorption concerns related to rickets. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate diagnostic tests for pediatric GI disorders, such as malabsorption leading to rickets, is crucial for healthcare professionals working with children. By knowing which tests are most relevant in specific clinical scenarios, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat underlying conditions, ensuring better outcomes for pediatric patients.
Question 4 of 5
The baby that is least vulnerable to develop vitamin K bleeding tendency is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is option A) a neonate of a healthy mother that started immediate breastfeeding. This baby is least vulnerable to develop vitamin K bleeding tendency because breast milk naturally contains vitamin K, which helps prevent bleeding disorders in newborns. Immediate breastfeeding ensures prompt intake of vitamin K, reducing the risk of deficiency. Option B) a nine-month-old infant with prolonged history of diarrhea and multiple antibiotics therapy is vulnerable to vitamin K deficiency due to malabsorption from diarrhea and antibiotics that can disrupt gut flora, affecting vitamin K production. Option C) a six-hour neonate of an epileptic mother that received phenobarbital during pregnancy is at risk because phenobarbital interferes with vitamin K metabolism, increasing the likelihood of bleeding disorders. Option D) a neonate in the intensive care unit receiving total parenteral nutrition lacks the natural intake of vitamin K found in breast milk, predisposing them to vitamin K deficiency and bleeding tendencies. In an educational context, understanding the factors that influence vitamin K levels in newborns is crucial for healthcare providers to ensure appropriate interventions to prevent bleeding disorders. Recognizing the importance of immediate breastfeeding and the risks associated with certain medications or conditions can guide clinical decision-making to optimize the health outcomes of infants.
Question 5 of 5
All of the following are true about cyclic vomiting EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question about cyclic vomiting, the correct answer is D) it is associated with nystagmus. Cyclic vomiting syndrome is a disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of severe vomiting with normal periods of health in between. Nystagmus, which refers to involuntary eye movements, is not typically associated with cyclic vomiting. Option A is incorrect because the onset of cyclic vomiting is typically before the age of 3, not between 3 and 5 years. Option B is also incorrect as episodes of cyclic vomiting can last from a few hours to several days, not specifically 2-3 days. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific criteria regarding the number of emesis episodes per hour to diagnose cyclic vomiting. From an educational standpoint, understanding the key characteristics of cyclic vomiting syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pediatric patients. Recognizing the symptoms and differentiating them from other gastrointestinal disorders is essential for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management. By knowing that nystagmus is not a typical feature of cyclic vomiting, healthcare providers can make more informed clinical decisions.