All the following are complications of serum sickness EXCEPT

Questions 231

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pediatric Nursing Exam Preparation Questions

Question 1 of 5

All the following are complications of serum sickness EXCEPT

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Serum sickness is a type III hypersensitivity reaction that can occur as a result of exposure to certain medications or foreign proteins. In this case, the correct answer is A) colitis. Colitis is not typically associated with serum sickness. Option B) glomerulonephritis is a possible complication of serum sickness due to immune complex deposition in the glomeruli leading to inflammation and kidney damage. Option C) Guillain-Barré syndrome is associated with serum sickness as the immune response can target peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis. Option D) peripheral neuritis can also occur as a complication of serum sickness, affecting the peripheral nerves. Educationally, understanding the complications of serum sickness is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide comprehensive care to pediatric patients. By knowing the potential complications, nurses can anticipate, monitor, and manage these conditions effectively. This knowledge is essential for ensuring the well-being of pediatric patients experiencing serum sickness and delivering quality nursing care.

Question 2 of 5

Type I Hypersensitivity reactions are triggered by antigen binding to IgE receptors on mast cells or basophils. A recognized example of type I reaction is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity reactions, also known as immediate hypersensitivity reactions, occur when an antigen binds to IgE antibodies on mast cells or basophils, leading to the release of inflammatory mediators such as histamine. Allergic asthma is a recognized example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction because in asthma, exposure to allergens triggers an immune response characterized by IgE-mediated mast cell activation, leading to airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and other symptoms associated with asthma. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) Rh hemolytic anemia: Rh hemolytic anemia is caused by the destruction of red blood cells due to an Rh incompatibility between a mother and her fetus. This is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction. B) Goodpasture syndrome: Goodpasture syndrome is an autoimmune disease where the body produces antibodies against collagen in the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs. This is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction. D) Serum sickness: Serum sickness is a type III hypersensitivity reaction caused by the formation of immune complexes in the blood. This is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction. Educational context: Understanding different types of hypersensitivity reactions is crucial in the field of nursing, especially when caring for pediatric patients who may have allergies or autoimmune conditions. Knowing the mechanisms behind each type of hypersensitivity reaction helps nurses provide appropriate care, educate patients and families about triggers, and recognize signs and symptoms early for prompt intervention. In the case of type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as allergic asthma, nurses must be vigilant in assessing and managing these potentially life-threatening reactions in pediatric patients.

Question 3 of 5

A chest radiograph should be performed with the first episode of asthma. Repeat chest radiographs are not needed unless there is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, the correct answer is C) high-grade fever. Performing a chest radiograph with the first episode of asthma is not recommended as it does not typically provide significant additional information for management. However, if a repeat chest radiograph is deemed necessary, it is usually due to concerns such as the presence of complicating factors like a high-grade fever, which may indicate a more severe respiratory infection or pneumonia. Option A) tachycardia is a common symptom in asthma but is not a direct indication for repeat chest radiograph. Option B) poor air movement is also a common feature of asthma but does not specifically warrant a chest radiograph unless other concerning signs are present. Option D) pulsus paradoxus is a sign of severe asthma exacerbation but is not a primary indicator for repeat chest radiograph in the absence of other significant symptoms. Educationally, it is important for nurses to understand the rationale behind diagnostic decisions in pediatric asthma management. By emphasizing the significance of high-grade fever as a red flag for potential complications, nurses can improve their clinical reasoning skills and provide more effective care for pediatric patients with asthma. Regular review and reinforcement of these principles can help nurses make appropriate decisions in real-world clinical scenarios.

Question 4 of 5

CHARGE association includes all the following EXCEPT

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding genetic syndromes like CHARGE association is crucial for providing comprehensive care. The correct answer is A) cataract because it is not typically associated with CHARGE syndrome. - Cataracts are primarily related to other conditions, not commonly seen in CHARGE association. - Congenital heart disease is a common feature of CHARGE association, impacting cardiac function. - Choanal atresia is a characteristic feature of CHARGE syndrome, affecting nasal airway. - Genitourinary defects are often present in CHARGE association, affecting the urinary and reproductive systems. Educational context: Knowing the key features of CHARGE association helps nurses recognize and address potential health issues early on. This knowledge enhances assessment skills and enables timely interventions, improving patient outcomes. Nurses play a vital role in identifying and managing symptoms associated with genetic syndromes like CHARGE, highlighting the importance of ongoing education in pediatric nursing.

Question 5 of 5

Topical anti-inflammatory agents, including corticosteroids and immunomodulators, are the cornerstone of therapy for atopic dermatitis. All the following statements are true EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question regarding the use of topical anti-inflammatory agents in atopic dermatitis, the correct answer is D) Reduced efficacy of topical corticosteroids is usually related to glucocorticoid resistance. This statement is false because reduced efficacy of topical corticosteroids is more commonly related to factors like incorrect application technique, non-compliance with treatment, or use of inappropriate potency rather than glucocorticoid resistance. A) Ointments generally are preferred over creams and lotions because they are more occlusive and provide better hydration to the skin. B) The least potent corticosteroid that is effective should be used to minimize side effects associated with prolonged use of higher potency steroids. C) Low-potency, nonfluorinated corticosteroids should be used on the face to reduce the risk of skin thinning and other adverse effects, as the facial skin is more sensitive. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate use of topical anti-inflammatory agents in atopic dermatitis is crucial for healthcare professionals caring for pediatric patients. It is essential to be knowledgeable about the different types of corticosteroids, their potencies, appropriate application techniques, and potential side effects to provide safe and effective care for children with atopic dermatitis.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions