All of the following would be considered contraindications to use of oral contraceptive pills except:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Kidney disease. Oral contraceptive pills are contraindicated in patients with kidney disease due to the risk of impaired drug clearance and potential adverse effects on renal function. Breast cancer (A), liver disease (C), and prior history of deep venous thrombosis (D) are all contraindications to the use of oral contraceptives due to increased risks of complications such as thrombosis or exacerbation of underlying conditions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Myxoedema. Myxoedema is associated with hypothyroidism, not SIADH. Guillain-Barre syndrome, subacute bacterial endocarditis, and bronchogenic carcinoma are all conditions that can lead to SIADH due to various mechanisms. Guillain-Barre syndrome can cause SIADH through autonomic dysfunction, endocarditis through the release of inflammatory cytokines, and bronchogenic carcinoma through production of ectopic ADH. Therefore, myxoedema is the only incorrect choice as it does not typically lead to SIADH.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adrenaline. In injury to the adrenal cortex, adrenaline is least affected because it is primarily synthesized and secreted by the adrenal medulla, not the adrenal cortex. Cortisol, aldosterone, and androstenedione are hormones produced by the adrenal cortex. In adrenal cortex injury, the secretion of cortisol, aldosterone, and androstenedione would be significantly affected due to the damage to the adrenal cortex, leading to hormonal imbalance and related symptoms. Therefore, option A is the correct answer as it is not primarily secreted by the adrenal cortex and would be least affected in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Excess prolactin causes gynaecomastia due to its stimulatory effect on breast tissue growth in males. Prolactin inhibits the release of testosterone, leading to an imbalance in sex hormones and breast tissue development. Acromegaly is caused by excess growth hormone, not prolactin. Early menopause is unrelated to prolactin levels. Anaemia is typically not associated with prolactin excess. Thus, gynaecomastia is the most appropriate outcome of excess prolactin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Growth hormone stimulates increased production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1). 2. In acromegaly, there is excessive production of growth hormone. 3. Excess growth hormone leads to elevated levels of IGF-1. 4. IGF-1 is primarily produced in the liver in response to growth hormone stimulation. 5. Therefore, increased levels of growth hormone in acromegaly stimulate increased production of IGF-1 from the liver. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because vasopressin is not produced from the adrenal glands in response to growth hormone. - Choice B is incorrect because vasopressin is not produced from the liver in response to growth hormone. - Choice D is incorrect because IGF-1 is mainly produced in the liver, not from the adrenal glands, in response to growth hormone.