All of the following statements regarding vasodilators are true EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker, not a dopamine receptor antagonist. Nifedipine works by blocking calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle, causing vasodilation. Hydralazine can cause reflex tachycardia due to its potent vasodilatory effects. Nitroprusside dilates both arterioles and veins, leading to decreased afterload and preload. Minoxidil is a potent arteriolar vasodilator used to treat hypertension but can cause hypertrichosis as a side effect.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because glucagon is indeed a peptide consisting of a single chain of 29 amino acids. This is a known fact in biochemistry. Glucagon is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a key role in regulating blood sugar levels. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: Glucagon is not a glycoprotein with a molecular weight of 6000. This is not a characteristic of glucagon. C: Glucagon is not a fructooligosaccharide. It is a peptide hormone, not a type of carbohydrate. D: Glucagon is not a small protein with a molecular weight of 5808 having a disulfide linkage. While glucagon does have disulfide linkages, its molecular weight is not 5808.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piroxicam. Piroxicam is an oxicam derivative because it belongs to the oxicam class of NSAIDs. It is characterized by its oxicam structure containing a 1,2-benzothiazine ring. The other options, Indomethacin, Meclofenamic acid, and Diclofenac, do not have the oxicam structure. Indomethacin is an indole derivative, Meclofenamic acid is a fenamic acid derivative, and Diclofenac is an acetic acid derivative. Therefore, Piroxicam is the correct choice based on its specific chemical structure that classifies it as an oxicam derivative.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prophylaxis of certain infections. IV IgG preparations are commonly used for prophylaxis against infections in patients with primary immunodeficiencies or those undergoing immunosuppressive therapy. This helps provide temporary immunity to specific pathogens. A: Kaposi's sarcoma - IV IgG preparations are not indicated for the treatment of Kaposi's sarcoma. B: Acute rejection of organ transplant - IV IgG preparations are not used to treat organ rejection. C: Condyloma acuminatum - IV IgG preparations are not indicated for the treatment of condyloma acuminatum. In summary, the correct indication for IV IgG preparation administration is for prophylaxis of certain infections to boost immunity in immunocompromised patients, while the other choices are unrelated to its primary use.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vitamin E. Vitamin E is known as the antisterility factor because it plays a crucial role in fertility and reproduction. It helps protect reproductive organs and improve fertility in both men and women. Vitamin B6 (choice B) is important for metabolism but not specifically related to fertility. Vitamin B1 (choice C) is essential for energy production but not known as an antisterility factor. Vitamin K (choice D) is important for blood clotting and bone health, not fertility. Thus, the correct answer is Vitamin E due to its specific role in promoting fertility and reproductive health.